1. Infected tissues demonstrating budding fungal cells are seen in
a. Coccidioidomycosis, chromomycosis, aspergillosis
b. Tinea versicolor, tinea nigra, candidiasis
c. Blastomycosis, paracoccidioides, dermatophytosis
d. Candidiasis, cryptococcosis, and sporotrichosis
e. Aspergillosis, mucormycosis, and mycetoma
2. A 6-year-old girl presents to the clinic with scaly patches on the scalp. Primary smears and culture of the skin and hair were negative. A few weeks later, she returned and was found to have inflammatory lesions. The hair fluoresced under Wood's light and primary smears of skin and hair contained septate hyphae. On speaking with the parents, it was discovered that there were several pets in the household. Which of the following is the most likely agent?
a. Microsporum audouinii
b. Microsporum canis
c. Trichophyton tonsurans
d. Trichophyton rubrum
e. Epidermophyton floccosum
3. A patient with AIDS has a persistent cough and has shown progressive behavioral changes in the past few weeks after eating an undercooked hamburger. A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) sample is collected and an encapsulated,
yeast-like organism is observed. Based only on these observations, what is the most likely organism?
a. Toxoplasma
b. Cryptosporidium
c. Candida
d. Cryptococcus
e. Pneumocystis
4. A clinical diagnosis of meningitis is confirmed with a latex agglutination test on CSF for the capsular polysaccharide of the organism. The most likely causative agent is
a. Candida albicans
b. Cryptococcus
c. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
d. Histoplasma capsulatum
e. Aspergillus fumigatus
5. A section of tissue from the foot of a person assumed to have eumycotic mycetoma shows a white, lobulated granule composed of fungal hyphae. In the United States, the most common etiologic agent of this condition is a species of
a. Acremonium
b. Nocardia
c. Actinomyces
d. Pseudallescheria (Petriellidium)
e. Madurella
6. The formation of granulomas is seen in major systemic fungal infections. Which of the following groups of fungi is most likely to cause granulomas?
a. Aspergillus, Coccidioides, Cryptococcus
b. Mucor, Candida, Malassezia
c. Cladosporium, Aspergillus, Microsporum
d. Coccidioides, Blastomyces, Histoplasma
e. Epidermophyton, Blastomyces, Trichophyton
7. Infection with Sporothrix schenckii (formerly Sporotrichum schenckii) is an occupational hazard for gardeners. The portal of entry for this organism is the
a. Lymphatic system
b. Respiratory tract
c. Skin
d. Mouth
e. Mucous membranes
8. C. albicans is recognized in microscopic examination of infected tissues by the presence of
a. Spherules containing endospores
b. Metachromatic granules
c. Yeasts and pseudohyphae
d. Asci containing 2-8 ascospores
e. Abundance of septate rhizoids
9. The mechanism of mucosal invasion by C. albicans is at least partially understood. Which one of the following modifications in the structure or function of this yeast would be most likely to affect its invasive ability?
a. Loss of ability to produce ethanol from glucose
b. Loss of ability to produce germ tubes or hyphae
c. Reduced ability to grow at 37C
d. Loss of ability to produce a polysaccharide capsule
e. Replacement of mannans in the cell wall with glucan
10. You have been designated as coordinator of construction of a bone marrow transplant unit (BMTU). There will be extensive removal of walls and floors in order to install the laminar flow rooms required for a BMTU. From the standpoint of frequency and lethality, which one of the following fungi should be your biggest concern?
a. Aspergillus
b. Candida
c. Wangiella
d. Cryptococcus
e. Blastomyces
11. H. capsulatum, a dimorphic fungus, is found in soil heavily contaminated with bird droppings. Which of the following statements best describes the presence of the organism in tissue biopsies?
a. Yeasts with broad-based bud
b. Single-cell yeasts with pseudohyphae
c. Arthrospores
d. Oval budding yeasts inside macrophages
e. Spherules containing endospores
12. Which of the following best describes an infection with Coccidioides immitis?
a. A negative complement-fixing (CF) antibody test
b. Inhaled arthrospores form thick-walled spherules filled with endospores
c. “Fungus ball” formation
d. Thrush
e. Clavate macroconidia
13. Inhalation of fungal spores can cause primary lung infections. Of the following organisms, which one is most likely to be associated with this mode of transmission?
a. C. immitis
b. S. schenckii
c. C. albicans
d. T. tonsurans
e. Candida tropicalis
14. An immunocompromised patient is suspected of having an infection with A. fumigatus. Which of the clinical conditions is most likely to occur?
a. Wound infection
b. Urinary tract infection
c. Invasive aspergillosis causing thrombosis and infarction
d. Thrush
e. Superficial rash
15. Patients who have disseminated coccidioidomycosis may usually demonstrate which one of the following?
a. A negative coccidioidin skin test and a rising complement-fixing (CF) titer
b. A negative coccidioidin skin test and a stable CF titer
c. A positive skin test and a mildly elevated CF titer
d. Absence of CF antibodies
e. Lack of immunity to reinfection
16. Aspergillus is best described by which of the following statements?
a. Widespread in environment; conidia may be inhaled; microscopic appearance in specimen reveals dichotomous branching and septate hyphae
b. Round, black sporangia filled with endospores; sporangia unbranched, rising from a runner called a stolon
c. Single-tipped sporangiophores; no rhizoids or stolons; nonseptate hyphae, which show branching
d. Yeast forms with budding blastoconidia often showing pseudohyphae; positive germ tube test; chlamydospores present
17. Mucor is best described by which of the following statements?
a. Widespread in environment; conidia may be inhaled; microscopic appearance in specimen reveals dichotomous branching and septate hyphae
b. Round, black sporangia filled with endospores; sporangia unbranched, rising from a runner called a stolon
c. Single-tipped sporangiophores; no rhizoids or stolons; nonseptate hyphae, which show branching
d. Yeast forms with budding blastoconidia often showing pseudohyphae; positive germ tube test; chlamydospores present
18. Rhizopus is best described by which of the following statements?
a. Widespread in environment; conidia may be inhaled; microscopic appearance in specimen reveals dichotomous branching and septate hyphae
b. Round, black sporangia filled with endospores; sporangia unbranched, rising from a runner called a stolon
c. Single-tipped sporangiophores; no rhizoids or stolons; nonseptate hyphae, which show branching
d. Yeast forms with budding blastoconidia often showing pseudohyphae; positive germ tube test; chlamydospores present
19. Barrel-shaped arthroconidia are characteristic of which one of the following fungi?
a. E. floccosum
b. C. immitis
c. Phialophora verrucosa
d. M. canis
e. Blastomyces dermatitidis
20. Sporulation from flask-shaped, pigmented projections is commonly observed in which one of the following fungi?
a. E. floccosum
b. C. immitis
c. P. verrucosa
d. M. canis
e. B. dermatitidis
21. Clavate macroconidia are characteristic of which one of the following fungi?
a. E. floccosum
b. C. immitis
c. P. verrucosa
d. M. canis
e. B. dermatitidis
22. Broad-based budding cells are characteristic of which one of the following fungi?
a. E. floccosum
b. C. immitis
c. P. verrucosa
d. M. canis
e. B. dermatitidis
23. Rough-walled macroconidia of 8 to 15 cells are commonly observed in which one of the following fungi?
a. E. floccosum
b. C. immitis
c. P. verrucosa
d. M. canis
e. B. dermatitidis
24. Tinea corporis is caused by which of the following?
a. E. floccosum
b. Malassezia furfur
c. M. canis
d. Exophiala werneckii
e. Trichosporon beigelii
25. Tinea cruris is caused by which of the following?
a. E. floccosum
b. M. furfur
c. M. canis
d. E. werneckii
e. T. beigelii
26. Tinea pedis is caused by which of the following?
a. E. floccosum
b. M. furfur
c. M. canis
d. E. werneckii
e. T. beigelii
27. Tinea capitis is caused by which of the following?
a. E. floccosum
b. M. furfur
c. M. canis
d. E. werneckii
e. T. beigelii
28. Tinea versicolor is caused by which of the following?
a. E. floccosum
b. M. furfur
c. M. canis
d. E. werneckii
e. T. beigelii
29. Which one of the following fungi causes subcutaneous zygomycosis? It is most often seen in Africa and Asia; the infections are most often seen on the trunk or limbs and begin as painless, small nodules; and the hyphae are 6 to 25 mm in length with irregular branching:
a. A. fumigatus
b. C. albicans
c. Conidiobolus coronata
d. Rhizopus arrhizus
e. Basidiobolus ranarum
30. Which one of the following fungi causes subcutaneous zygomycosis? The infections usually involve the nasal area with swelling of nose and cheeks, and cases are seen in Africa with rare cases in the Caribbean and South America.
a. A. fumigatus
b. C. albicans
c. C. coronata
d. R. arrhizus
e. B. ranarum
31. Which one of the following fungi causes allergic bronchopulmonary disease resulting in marked elevation of serum IgE?
a. A. fumigatus
b. C. albicans
c. C. coronata
d. R. arrhizus
e. B. ranarum
32. Which one of the following fungi is often isolated from blood, urine, and sputum in invasive disease? It is difficult to determine whether isolation from one body site or body fluid is suggestive of colonization or infection.
a. A. fumigatus
b. C. albicans
c. C. coronata
d. R. arrhizus
e. B. ranarum
33. Which one of the following fungi causes rhinocerebral zygomycosis and is usually associated with acute diabetes?
a. A. fumigatus
b. C. albicans
c. C. coronata
d. R. arrhizus
e. B. ranarum