Name:………………………………………..……Group 1
10.02.2006 B. Tukiendorf
1.Staphylococci are routinely differentiated from Streptococci by:
a) production of beta-hemolysin
b) production of leukocidin
c) catalase test
d) all of the above
2.Virulence factors of S.pneumoniae include:
M surface protein
Capsules
Deoxyribonuclease
CF (clumping factor)
3.Differentiation between S.aureus and S.epidermidis is based on:
staining according to Gram
coagulase production
hemolysin production
sensitivity to antibiotics
4. A 55-year-old male was admitted to a local hospital with fever and chills. The patient had received multiple courses of antibiotics. Blood cultures grew a Gram positive cocci, which tested positive with group D streptococcal antisera. The isolate was resistant to penicillin and vancomycin. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen?
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Enterococcus faecium
c) Streptococcus pyogenes
d) Streptococcus agalactiae
5.Toxic shock in menstruating women may develop due to:
use of oral contraceptives
application of intravaginal tampons
use of intrauterine appliances
none of the above
6.MRSA denotes:
staphylococci not stained by Gram technique
methycillin resistant S.aureus
encapsulating S.aureus
S.epidermidis strains resistant to antibiotics
7.Biofilms adhere to artificial body parts and catheters produce:
Staphylococcus epidermidis
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Streptococcus viridans
d) Streptococcus pyogenes
8.A 71-year-old male was admitted from his nursing home because of recent aggravation of an exfoliative skin condition that has plagued him for several years. He had been receiving a variety of topical antibiotic regimens over the last year or two. He now has a temperature of 38.9°C (102°F). The skin of upper chest, extremities, and neck shows erythema with diffuse epidermal peeling and many pustular lesions. Cultures obtained from these lesions were reported back from the laboratory as yielding a Gram-positive organism that is highly salt(NaCl) tolerant. What lab result is used to confirm the species of the causative agent?
a) bacitracin sensitivity
b) bile solubility
c) catalase production
d) coagulase production
9. A 3-year-old child develops acute glomerulonephritis following impetigo. The bacteria is a catalase-negative, Gram-positive coccus that has M 12 surface protein. What is the most likely causative agent?
Enterococcus faecium
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus pyogenes
10. Which of the following bacteria is most likely to be alpha-haemolytic?
a) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Staphylococus aureus
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
d) Streptococcus agalactiae
Name:………………………………………..……Group 2
10.02.2006 B. Tukiendorf
1.What organism is most likely responsible for bacterial meningitis in infants during the first month of life:
a) Enterococcus faecalis
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Streptococcus agalactiae
d) Streptococcus pneumoniae
2.High ASO titers point to:
a) S.aureus induced infection experienced in the past
b) S.pyogenes
c) S.pneumoniae
d) S.saprophyticus
3. Enterococci induce most frequently:
a) food poisoning
b) diseases of respiratory system
c) urinary tract infections
d) veneral diseases
4. Development of staphylococcal alimentary intoxications depends upon:
a) presence of viable bacteria
b) enterotoxin
c) hemolysin
d) bacterial cell wall
5. What causative agent is most likely responsible for oedema, hematuria, proteinuria in a patient who had impetigo 3 weeks ago:
a) S.aureus
b) S.epidermidis
c) S.agalactiae
d) S.pyogenes
6. A 51-year- old man was admitted to the hospital: unresponsive, with epileptiform movements, fever and stiff of his neck. Chest examination reveled lobbar pneumonia. Because of the fever and unconsciousness, lumbar puncture was done promptly to examine the CSF: had a heavy concentration of gram-positive cocci in pairs(diplococci), the most likely microbial etiology of his infections is:
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Streptococcus pyogenes
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
d) Staphylococcus epidermidis
7. Staphylococci are routinely differentiated from Streptococci by
a) production of beta-hemolysin
b) production of leukocidin
c) catalase test
d) all of the above
8. Biofilms adhere to artificial body parts and catheters produce:
a) Staphylococcus epidermidis
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Enterococcus faecalis
d) Streptococcus pyogenes
9.Which of the following bacteria is most likely to be alpha-haemolytic?
a) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Staphylococus aureus
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
d) Streptococcus agalactiae
10.Virulence factors of S.pneumoniae include:
a) M surface protein
b) Capsules
c) Deoxyribonuclease
d) CF (clumping factor)
Name:………………………………………..……Group 3
10.02.2006 B. Tukiendorf
1. A child presents with impetigo with bullae. Gram-positive, beta-hemolytic, catalase-positive, coagulase-positive cocci are isolated. Which of the following are the most likely microorganisms:
a) group A streptococci
b) group B streptococci
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Staphylococcus epidermidis
2. S.aureus exfoliative toxins:
a) peeling of mammalian cell membranes and thus cell lysis
b) are important causes of toxic shock syndrome in menstruating women
c) cause bullous impetigo
d) act as virulence factors in staphylococcal pharyngitis, requiring prompt antitoxin administration
3. Which of the following laboratory criteria would establish Staphylococcus.aureus. rather than Streptococcus pyogenes, as the causative organism?
a) growth on blood agar
b) production of catalase
c) motility
d) presence of Gram positive cocci
4.The typical staphylococcal skin lesions include:
a) urticaria
b) abscesses and furuncles
c) rash
d) indurated chancre
5. Streptococcus agalactiae is also known by its Lancefield group which is:
a) group A
b) group B
c) group C
d) group D
6. MRSA denotes:
a) staphylococci not stained by Gram technique
b) methycillin resistant S.aureus
c) encapsulating S.aureus
d) S.epidermidis strains resistant to antibiotics
7. A 32-year-old woman bacame ill four days after the onset of her menstrual period. She presented in the emergency room with fever, elevated white blood cell count( 16.000/mm3), and a rash on her trunk and extremities. She complained of fatigue, vomiting and diarrrhea. She had recently eaten at a fast-food restaurant, but otherwise had prepared all her meals at home. The patient described most likely has:
a) staphylococcal food poisoning
b) scalded skin syndrome
c) infection with a Staphylococcus saprophyticus
d) toxic shock syndrome
8.Which of the following is a characteristic of Streptococcus pyogenes ?
a) Gram-negative cocci usually arrange in diplococci or chains
b) endotoxin
c) catalase
d) fimbriae
9. What antigen is most useful in identifying nephritogenic strains of Group A streptococci which may induce glomerulonephritis?
a) capsular antigen
b) cell wall carbohydrates
d) M proteins
d) outer membrane proteins
10. Pneumococcal pneumonia or meningitis rarely occurs in the absence of what virulence factor?
a) capsule
b) heat shock proteins
c) outer membrane
d) periplasmic space
Name:………………………………………..……Group 1
17.02.2006 I. Chudzicka-Strugała
1. H.influenzae capsule type b consists of:
a) lipopolysaccharides (LPS)
b) polyribose - ribitol phosphate (PRP)
c) outer membrane protein (OMP)
d) lipooligosaccharide (LOS)
2. Which of the following bacteria induce lesions to ciliated epithelial cells:
a) H.influenzae
b) P.aeruginosa
c) B.pertussi
d) S.aureus
3. A patient presented to the eye casualty with a painful eye. Coneal scrappino showed the Gram negative bacilli. What is the most common predisposing factor for this infection?
a) S. aureus
b) P. aeruginosa
c) H. influenzae typ b
d) N. gonorrhoeae
4. Bordetella pertussis, called whooping cough, can best be detected by which of the following procedures?
a) Culture of respiratory secretions in HeLa cells after centrifugation of the inoculated tubes
b) Culture of respiratory secretions on Regan-Lowe agar
c) Direct microscopy of sputum by Gram stain
d) Fluorescent antibody detection of the organism in sputum
5. Which of the following is a preferred third - generation cephalosporin with good activity against childhood meningitis?
a) Penicillin
b) Vancomycin
c) Ceftazidine
d) Cefotaxime
6. There are variety of unusual bacteria that infect humans. While rare disease caused by these microorganisms is serious and occasionally difficult to identify. Which of the following statements best characterizes Moraxella catarrhalis?
a) A gram-negative, pleomorhic rod that can cause endocarditis
b) A gram-negative rod, fusiform-shaped, that is associated with periodontal disease but may cause sepsis.
c) The causative agent of sinusitis, bronchitis, and pneumonia
d) The causative agent of rat-bite fever
7. The virulence factors N.memingitidis responible for or thought to faciliate adherence to the nospharyngeal mucosa are:
a) fagella and spores
b) exotoxins and enterotoxins
c) pili and IgA 1 protease
d) outer membrane proteins (OMP)
8. Meningococcal vaccins:
a) are prepared from the cell wall of N. Menigitidis
b) are serogroup - specific, capsular poysaccharides
c) are particilarly effective in yhe prevention of disease due to serogroup B
d) rarely prevent dissemination of organisms from the primary site
9. Several days after an unprotected sexual encounter, a healthy 21-years old male develops pain and pus on urination. A Gram stain reveals gram-negative diplococci. Which of the following structures is most responsible for adherence of the offending microbe to the urethral mucosa?
a) capsule
b) fimbriae
c) flagella
d) the F pili
10. Several Neisseria species are a part of the normal flora (commensals) of the human upper respiratory tract. Which of the following statements accurately describes the significance of these bacteria?
a) As a part of the normal flora, Neisseriae provide a natural immunity in local host defense.
b) As a part of the respiratory flora, they are the most common cause of acute bronchitis and pneumonia
c) Commensal bacteria stimulate a cell-mediated immunity (CMI)
d) Normal flora such as nonpathogenic Neisseriae provide effective nonspecific B-cell-mediated humoral immunity.
Name:………………………………………..……Group 2
17.02.2006 I. Chudzicka-Strugała
1. Etiologic agent of meningitis in infants and children aged 2 months to 5 years:
a) Haemophilus influenzae type b
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Neisseria meningitidis
d) All of the above
2. Acellular B.pertussis vaccine contains:
a) LPS
b) polysaccharide capsule
c) tracheal cytotoxin
d) FHA, pertactin, pertussis toxoid
3. What is the treatment for pertussis?
a) Vancomycin
b) Penicillin
c) ceftazidine
d) Erythromycin
4. A hyperemic edema of the larynx and epiglottis that rapidly leads to respiratory obstruction in young children is most likely to be caused by which of the following organisms?
a) Haemophilus hemolyticus
b) H. influenzae
c) K. pneumoniae
d) Neisseria meningitides
5. A sputum sample was brought to the laboratory for analysis. Gram stain revealed the following: rare epithelial cells, 8 to 10 polymorphonuclear leukocytes per high-power field, and pleomorphic gram-negative rods. As a laboratory consultant, which of the following interpretations should you make?
a) The appearance of the sputum is suggestive of H. influenzae
b) The patient has pneumococcal pneumonia
c) The sputum specimen is too contaminated by saliva to be useful
d) There is no evidence of an inflammatory response
6. The person who contracts gonorrhoea is most likely to have acquired it via which of the following.
a) gastrointestinal tract
b) genital tract
c) nasal tract
d) skin
7. N. gonorrhoeae is fastidious pathogen found in sites often contaminated with normal flora. What is the best medium for isolation.
a) Loffler's medium
b) Sheep blood agar
c) Thayer-Martin agar
d) Thisulfate citrate bile salts sucrose medium
8. Primary gonococcal disease:
a) never initiates in the pharynx or rectum
b) occur only as acute male or female urethritis
c) is usually treated with penicillin
d) results in acute inflammatory response characterized by polymorphonuclear leukocytes attracted to the primary site by LOS and host complements.
9. Pelvic inflamatory disease (PID) is caused by:
a) S. aureus
b) S. pyogenes
c) N. meningitidis
d) N. gonorrheoeae
10. N. gonorrhoeae attaches to mucosal cells of the:
a) oral - pharyngel area
b) genitals
c) eyes
d) all of the above
Name:………………………………………..……Group 3
17.02.2006 I. Chudzicka-Strugała
1. Sings of H.ducreyi (chancroid or soft chancre) include:
a) vomiting
b) stiff neck
c) diarrhea
d) painful, friable ulcer on the genitals
2. How is pertussis prevented?
a) IPV vaccine
b) DTaP vaccine
c) H i b vaccine
d) Hep B vaccine
3. Which of the following is the causative agent of swimmer's ear?
a) H. influenzae
b) P. aeruginosa
c) N. meningitidis
d) H. Parainfluenzae
4. A 2-year-old child has a high fever and is irritable. He has a stiff neck. Gram stain smear of spinal fluid reveals gram-negative, small pleomorphic coccobacillary organisms. What is the most appropriate procedure to follow in order to reach an etiological diagnosis?
a) Culture the spinal fluid in chocolate agar and identify the organism by growth factors
b) Culture the spinal fluid in mannitol-salt agar
c) Perform a catalase test of the isolated organism
d) Perform a latex agglutination test to detect the specific antibody in the spinal fluid
5. Bordetella pertussis is a Gram-negative rod that causes severe respiratory disease. Which one of the following statements best characterizes this microorganism?
a) It produces at least one protein toxin consisting of two subunits, A and B, that cause severe
spasmodic cough, usually in children
b) It produces a toxin that blocks protein synthesis in an infected cell and carries a lytic
bacteriophage that produces the genetic information for toxin production
c) It secretes an erythrogenic toxin that causes the characteristic signs of scarlet fever
d) It secretes an exotoxin that has been called “verotoxin” and “Shiga-like toxin”; infection is
mediated by specific attachment to mucosal membranes
6. N. meningitidis causes meningitis in all age groups. Which of the following is a characteristic physiological trait?
a) It causes spontaneous abortion and has tropism for placental tissue due to the presence of the erythritol in allantoic and amniotic fluid.
b) It has a capsule of polyglutamic acid, which is toxic when injected into rabbits.
c) It possesses N-acetylneuraminic acid capsule and adheres to specific tissue by pili found on the bacterial cell surface.
d) It secretes two toxins, A and B, in the large bowel during antibiotic therapy.
7. Most gonococcal strains that produce disseminated diseuse:
a) are sensitive to killing by normal human serum
b) are A-H-U-auxotrophs
c) do not contain LOS
d) are relatively resistance to penicillin
8. Measures to prevent and control gonorrheae do not include:
a) vaccination
b) the use of condoms
c) treatment of case contact
d) test for cure following therapy
9. Young men (20 years old) with a yellow purulent discharge and dysuria following an incubation period 7 to 14 days. Which of the following is the etiologic agents.
a) H. ducreyi
b) N. gonorrhoeae
c) S. aureus
d) Ps. aeruginosa
10. First day of life, watery exudet and hyperemia. What is causative agent:
a) N. gonorrhoeea
b) no infected agent - silver nitrate susceptibility
c) S. epidermidis
d) B. pertussis
Name:………………………………………..……Group 1
24.02.2006r. B. Zwoździak
1. How is L. pneumophila transmitted?
respiratory droplets
foodborne
aerosols from contaminated air-conditioning
human to human transmission
2. Due to cold growth some fairly common animal fecal bacteria potentially contaminate some deli meats and soft cheeses; therefore, renal transplant patients should only have hot deli sandwiches. What is this causative agent of meningitis in transplant patients ?
S.pneumoniae
L.pneumophila
L.monocytogenes
N.gonorrhoeae
3. What causative agent is most likely responsible for patient with sore throat with pseudomembrane, “bull neck”, potential respiratory obstruction :
C.pseudodiphtheriae
H.influenzae
L.micdadei
C.diphtheriae
4. When comparing pertussis and diphtheria, true statements include which of the following ?
both pertussis and diphtheria are caused by bacteria that must adhere to respiratory tract cells
diphtheria symtoms are caused by an exotoxin, but no symptoms of pertussis result from an exotoxin
the bacteria responsible for diphtheria and pertussis both produce endotoxin
pertussis is caused by an intracellular pathogen, but diphtheria is caused by an extracellular pathogen
5. A 2-year-old child was admitted to the hospital with acute meningitis. The gram-positive, short rods, and the mother indicated that the child had received “all” of the meningitis vaccinations. What is the most likely cause of the disease?
a) H.influenzae
b) L.monocytogenes
c) Neisseria meningitides
d) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
6. What is the difference between Diphtheroids and C.diphtheriae ?
Morphological properties
Biochemical properties
Inability to produce exotoxin
None of them
7. The Microbiology laboratory has chosen to culture all sputum samples received for Legionellae. Which medium is more likely to recover the organisms ?
cysteine - tellurite agar
buffered charcoal yeast extract agar
brucella agar
potato dextrose agar
8. What does "probiotic" mean?
clinical syndrome of pneumonia
a kind of exotoxin
food ingredients with physiologic effects through the GI tract
medium for Lactobacillus culture
9. What organism is most likely responsible for bacterial meningitis in neonates:
S.aureus
L.monocytogenes
C.diphtheriae
Lactobacillus sp.
10. How must diphtheria be treated?
antitoxin, antibiotics
toxoid, antibiotics
antibiotics
none of the above
Name:………………………………………..……Group 2
24.02.2006r. B. Zwoździak
1. Which of the following genetic mechanisms is responsible for the conversion of non-virulent strains of C. diphtheriae to virulent strains?
genetic transformation
lysogenic phage conversion
conjugation
genetic recombination
2. Due to cold growth some fairly common animal fecal bacteria potentially contaminate some deli meats and soft cheeses; therefore, renal transplant patients should only have hot deli sandwiches. What is this causative agent of meningitis in transplant patients?
S.pneumoniae
L.pneumophila
L.monocytogenes
N.gonorrhoeae
3. The best treatment for a patient with “Legionnaire's disease” is:
penicillin
cephalosporins
erythromycin
vancomycin
4. What causative agent is most likely responsible for patient with sore throat with pseudomembrane, “bull neck”, potential respiratory obstruction :
C.pseudodiphtheriae
H.influenzae b
L.micdadei
C.diphtheriae
5. A 2-week-year old newborn developed meningitis. Short, gram-positive rods were isolated and identified as Listeria organisms. The mother had eaten unpasteurized cheese from Mexico during the pregnancy and recalled having a flulike illness. Listeria monocytogenes causes a variety of diseases, including food poisoning. Which of the following best describes these microorganism?
flagella are produced both at room temperature and at 37ºC
Listeria are facultative intracellular pathogens
Once infected, the immune system cannot destroy Listeria
Listeria cannot be cultivated on artificial media
6. The primary virulence mechanism of L.pneumophila is its:
potent cytotoxin that inhibits motility of respiratory cilia
proteases that inflict damage to host tissue
antiphagocytic capsule
ability to induce phagocytosis and survive in the phagosome
7. The most important virulence factor of L.monocytogenes is:
liseriolysin O
exotoxin
pyrogenic toxin
pertussis toxin
8. When comparing pertussis and diphtheria, true statements include which of the following?
both pertussis and diphtheria are caused by bacteria that must adhere to respiratory tract cells
diphtheria symtoms are caused by an exotoxin, but no symptoms of pertussis result from an exotoxin
the bacteria responsible for diphtheria and pertussis both produce endotoxin
pertussis is caused by an intracellular pathogen, but diphtheria is caused by an extracellular pathogen
9. How can diphtheria be prevented?
DTaP vaccine
antitoxin
antibiotics
sulphonamides
10. Which statement is true for Lactobacillus ?
antibiotic therapy helps the colonization of Lactobacillus
limits the concentration of potentially harmful germs in the digestive tract
negatively affects the immune response by improving the intestinal microbial balance
none of the above
Name:………………………………………..……Group 3
24.02.2006r. B. Zwoździak
1. Pneumonia in an older male heavy smoker and drinker. Two of his bar buddies have the same acute onset of pneumonia with severe headache, mental confusion, and diarrhea but no sputum. What is the causative agent is?
L.monocytogenes
L. pneumophila
Enterococcus spp.
all of the above
2. C.diphtheriae causes diphtheria disease. C.diphtheriae is best characterized by which of the following statements?
it produces at least one protein toxin consisting of two subunits, A and B, that cause severe spasmodic cough, usually in children
it requires cysteine for growth
it produces a toxin that blocks protein synthesis in an infected cell and carriers a bacteriophage that produces the genetic information for toxin production
it secretes an exotoxin that has been called “verotoxin”, infection is mediated by specific attachment to mucosal membrane
3. Among the four presented bacterial species, which one respond to following description: gram-positive rod with β-hemolysis on blood agar and motility, which causes foodborn disease?
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Lactobacillus
Legionella pneumophila
Listeria monocytogenes
4. A major step in the pathogenesis of listeriosis is:
the release of hyaluronidase by L.monocytogenes, which contributes to its dissemination from local sites
the antiphagocytic activity of the L.monocytogenes capsule
the ability of polymorphonuclear leucocytes to phagocytize and destroy L.monocytogenes early in the course of the disease
the survival and multiplication of L.monocytogenes within mononuclear phagocytes and host epithelial cells
5. A diagnosis of diphtheria is confirmed by:
microscopic appearance of organisms stained with methylene blue
isolation of a typical colony on Tinsdale's agar
demonstration of toxin production by a suspicious isolate
isolation of typical organisms from materials such as blood, showing invasiveness
6. Which statement is true for L.monocytogenes ?
limits the concentration of potentially harmful germs in the digestive tract
produces an extracellular toxin which lyses membrane-bound vacuoles of epithelial cells and monocytes
positively affects the immune response by improving the intestinal microbial balance
none of the above
7. The best treatment for a patient with “Legionnaire's disease” is:
erythromycin
penicillin
cephalosporins
vancomycin
8. What is the difference between Diphtheroids and C.diphtheriae ?
Morphological properties
Biochemical properties
Inability to produce exotoxin
None of them
9. How must diphtheria be treated?
antitoxin, antibiotics
toxoid, antibiotics
antibiotics
none of the above
10. Which statement is true for Lactobacillus ?
antibiotic therapy helps the colonization of Lactobacillus
maintains low vaginal pH
production of H2O2 causes vaginal epithelium damages
none of the above
Name: Group 1
03.03.2006r. dr W. Michalska
E. coli causes disease by a variety of different mechanisms. Which of the following
E. coli types is characterized by the presence of LT (heat - labile) and ST (heat - stable) enterotoxin.
EIEC (enteroinvasive E. coli)
ETEC (enterotoxigenic E. coli)
EHEC (enterohemorragic E. coli)
EPEC (enteropathogenic E. coli)
Local lesions induced by Salmonella typhi are localized mainly in:
large intestine
small intestine
kidneys
liver
3. Urinary tract infections are most frequently induced by:
a) Salmonella spp.
b) E.coli
c) Klebsiella spp.
d) Staphylococcus spp.
4. Negative staining of Klebsiella pneumoniae is used to demonstrate:
pili of bacterial cells
characteristic patterns of bacterial cells
bacterial capsules
cell structures
5. Which of the following bacteria produce Vi antigen on the surface of their cells:
a) Shigella flexneri
b) Shigella sonnei
c) Salmonella typhi
d) Salmonella enteritidis
6. 45 year - old patient is brought to the emergency room with fever, abdominal pain and acute diarrhea with blood and mucous in the stool. Which of the following bacteria would most likely be isolated from the stool specimen:
a) Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
b) Shigella flexneri
c) Salmonella enteritidis
d) Proteus mirabilis
7. Sixteen residents in a retirement home have fever, malaise, abdominal pain and skin rash. These residents have taken their meals prepared by the same kitchen. Blood cultures reveal the presence of Salmonella typhi. The primary reservoir of this organism are:
a) hen's egg
b) dogs and cats
c) people
d) turkeys
8. Endotoxins belong to a class of biological molecules called:
a) mucopolisaccharides
b) proteins
c) peptydoglycans
d) lipopolisaccharides
9. A 48 year-old woman develops a urinary tract infection. The microscopic examination of a urine sample reveals the presence of Gram - negative rods. After antibiotic therapy she developed fever, chills and hypotention. These observation suggest that the patient is responding to the release of bacterial:
a) hyaluronidaze
b) lipopolisaccharide (LPS)
c) peptidoglycan
d) exotoxin
10. E. coli O157 H7 is a newsworthy microorganism that has been isolated from food (meat) with increasing frequency. Its characteristic biology is best described by one of the following statement:
a) It produces protein toxin consisting of two subunits A and B that cause
severe spasmatic cough usually in children.
b) It secretes an erythrogenic toxin that causes the characteristic skin rash
c) It secretes an exotoxin that has been called „shiga - like toxin”
and „verotoxin”
d) It requires cystein for growth
Name: Group 2
03.03.2006r. dr W. Michalska
Local lesions induced by Salmonella typhi are localized mainly in:
a) large intestine
b) small intestine
c) kidneys
d) liver
2. Which of the following tests would be most useful to differentiate Shigella flexneri from Shigella boydii?
a) fermentation of lactose
b) motility
c) agglutination in specific antisera
d) production of H2S
3. ETEC (enterotoxigenic E. coli) induces:
a) bacillary dysentery
b) diarrhea in travelers
c) colitis haemorrhagica
d) typhoid fever
4. An elderly male develops a severe necrotizing lobar pneumonia. The bacteria cultured from sputum ferment lactose and produce large capsules. The most likely causative agent is:
a) Proteus spp.
b) Shigella spp.
c) EPEC (enteropathogenic E. coli)
d) Klebsiella pneumoniae
5. Which of the following is most likely to cause urinary tract infections:
a) Shigella sonnei
b) Salmonella enteritidis
c) Klebsiella spp.
d) Escherichia coli
6. An elderly male presented continous fever, abdominal pain and a rose spot on the skin. Blood culture reveals the presence of S. typhi. Which of the following infections is developing
a) Bacterial dysentery
b) Gastroenteritis
c) Typhoid fever
d) Scarlet fever
7. Which of the following bacteria produce Shiga - like toxins ( Verotoxins ):
a) Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
b) Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
c) Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC or VTEC)
d) Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)
8. Which of the following bacteria induces HUS (hemolytic uremic syndrom)
a) Salmonella enteritidis
b) Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
c) E. coli O157 H7
d) Klebsiella pneumoniae
9. The definitive diagnosis of shigellosis is routinely made on the basis of clinical symptoms and also basing on:
a) culture of stool
b) positive blood culture
c) identification of Shiga toxin in stool
d) PCR for H antigens
10. Endotoxins belong to a class of biological molecules called:
a) mucopolisaccharides
b) proteins
c) peptydoglycans
d) lipopolisaccharides
Name: Group 3
03.03.2006r. dr W. Michalska
1. Endotoxic shock, linked to the presence of toxic LPS in the cell wall, is most frequently inducet by:
a) E.coli
b) Klebsiella spp.
c) Enterobacter spp.
d) Proteus sp.
2. Salmonella enteritidis causes:
a) typhoid fever
b) bacillary dysentery
c) bacterial food poisoning
d) HUS (hemolytic uremic syndrome)
3. Shigellosis is common in travelers to developing countries. Through which of the following routes is the infection most commonly aquired?
a) gastrointestinal tract
b) genital tract
c) respiratory tract
d) skin
4. Negative staining of Klebsiella pneumoniae is used to demonstrate:
a) pili of bacterial cells
b) characteristic patterns of bacterial cells
c) bacterial capsules
d) cell structures
5. Which of the following bacteria produce Vi antigen on the surface of their cells:
a) Shigella flexneri
b) Shigella sonnei
c) Salmonella typhi
d) Salmonella enteritidis
6. The definitive diagnosis of shigellosis is routinely made on the basis of clinical symptoms and also basing on:
a) culture of stool
b) positive blood culture
c) identification of Shiga toxin in stool
d) PCR for H antigens
7. Sixteen residents in a retirement home have fever, malaise, abdominal pain and skin rash. These residents have taken their meals prepared by the same kitchen. Blood cultures reveal the presence of Salmonella typhi. The primary reservoir of this organism are:
a) hen's egg
b) dogs and cats
c) people
d) turkeys
8. An elderly male develops a severe necrotizing lobar pneumonia. The bacteria cultured from sputum ferment lactose and produce large capsules. The most likely causative agent is:
a) Proteus spp.
b) Shigella spp.
c) EPEC (enteropathogenic E. coli)
d) Klebsiella pneumoniae
9. A 48 year-old woman develops a urinary tract infection. The microscopic examination of a urine sample reveals the presence of Gram - negative rods. After antibiotic therapy she developed fever, chills and hypotention. These observation suggest that the patient is responding to the release of bacterial:
a) hyaluronidaze
b) lipopolisaccharide (LPS)
c) peptidoglycan
d) exotoxin
10. A 2 year - old infant is brought to the emergency room with hemolytic uremic syndrom (HUS) . Which one of the following bacteria would most likely be isolated from a stool specimen
a) ETEC ( enterotoxigenic E. coli)
b) E. coli O157 H7
c) Salmonella enteritidis
d) Shigella sonnei
Name:………………………………………..……Group 1
13.03.2006 Dr Andrzejewska i dr Tułecka
1. Campylobacter microorganisms may be transmitted to man through:
a) milk and meat products
b) tick vector
c) broken skin
d) sexual contact
2. In vibrio cholerae, the causative agent of cholera, is best described by which of the following statements?
a) cause of gastroenteritis, reservoir in birds and mamonals, optimal growth at 42°C
b) have tree serotypes: Ogawa, Inaba, Hikojima
c) human pathogen, sucrose negative, causes gastrointestinal diseases primarily from ingestion of cooked seafood
d) may be diagnosed by rapid urease test
3. In the treatment of helicobacter pylori infection following antibiotics may be used
a) amoxicillin
b) clarythromycin
c) metronidazole
d) all the above
4. Diagnosis of leptospiroses involves testing of:
a) throat swab
b) urine
c) pus
d) feces
5. Which laboratory test is the most usefue for diagnosis of Lyme disease
a) culture of microorganism on blood agar
b) detection of IgM/IgG antibodies to spirochets
c) swab from erythrema migrans stained with Gram-method
d) VDRL - assay
6. The probable cause of the relapsing nature of relapsing fever caused by Borrelia recurrentis is:
a) the sequential appearance of new antibiotic resistant variants
b) successive appearance of new antigenic variants
c) ability to activate of dormancy spores
d) periodic hormonal fluctuations in the host
7. A 22-year-old male presents to his physician, complaining of a two week history of a sore on his penis. Physical examination shows a firm, raised, red, nontender chancre midway between the base and glans of the penis. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the physician?
a) swab the chancre and culture on Thayer-Martin agar
b) swab the chancre and perform a Gram stain
c) perform a dark-field examination on a swab of the active lesion
d) swab the chancre and culture on blood agar
8. For which of the following organisms is there no animals reservoir?
a) Francisella tularensis
b) Pasteurella multocida
c) Treponema pallidum
d) Brucella melitensis
9. For which of the following organisms is human disease typically acquired by drinking contaminated unpasterized milk?
a) Brucella abortus
b) Francisella tularensis
c) Pasteurella multocida
d) Treponema pallidum
10. Which of the following organisms is typically transmitted sexually?
a) Brucella suis
b) Yersinia pestis
c) Treponema pallidum
d) Pasteurella multocida
Name:………………………………………..……Group 2
13.03.2006 Dr Andrzejewska i dr Tułecka
1. Which of the following statements best describes Cmpylobacter jejuni?
a) cause of gastroenteritis, reservoir in birds and animal, can grow at 42°C
b) only human pathogen, causes gastrointestinal diseases primarily from ingestion of seafood
c) human pathogen, produces heat - labile, extracellular toxin
d) have three serotypes: Inaba, Ogawa, Hikojima
2. V. cholerae, the causative agent of cholera is best isolated using which one of the following media
a) Lőfflers medium
b) Lőwenstein - Jensen medium
c) Mannitol salt agar
d) thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose medium
3. The patient has been admitted to the hospital because of bledding duodenal ulcer. In culture from gastric biopsy samples urease - positive, curved bacteria was isolate. The most likely causative agent is:
a) Campylobacter jejuni
b) Helicobcter pylori
c) Helicobacter fetus
d) Vibrio cholerae
4. Which of the following microorganisms is usually transmitted by contaminated woter
a) Borrelia recurrentis
b) Leptospira interrogans
c) Treponema pallidum
d) Borrelia burgdorferi
5. In treatment of Lyme disease the following antibiotics are used:
a) doxycycline
b) erythromycin
c) ceftriaxone
d) all the above
6. The probable cause of the relapsing nature of relapsing fever caused by Borrelia recurrentis is:
a) the sequential appearance of new antibiotic resistant variants
b) successive appearance of new antigenic variants
c) ability to activate of dormancy spores
d) periodic hormonal fluctuations in the host
7. A 22-year-old male presents to his physician, complaining of a two week history of a sore on his penis. Physical examination shows a firm, raised, red, nontender chancre midway between the base and glans of the penis. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the physician?
a) swab the chancre and culture on Thayer-Martin agar
b) swab the chancre and perform a Gram stain
c) perform a dark-field examination on a swab of the active lesion
d) swab the chancre and culture on blood agar
8. For which of the following organisms is there no animals reservoir?
a) Francisella tularensis
b) Pasteurella multocida
c) Treponema pallidum
d) Brucella melitensis
9. For which of the following organisms is human disease typically acquired by drinking contaminated unpasterized milk?
a) Brucella abortus
b) Francisella tularensis
c) Pasteurella multocida
d) Treponema pallidum
10. Which of the following organisms is typically transmitted sexually?
a) Brucella suis
b) Yersinia pestis
c) Treponema pallidum
d) Pasteurella multocida
Name:………………………………………..……Group 3
13.03.2006 Dr Andrzejewska i dr Tułecka
1. A family routinely consumed unpasteurized milk, claiming “better taste”. Several members experienced a sudden onset of crampy abdominal pain, fever, and a bloody diarrhea. Campylobacter jejuni was isolated and identified from all patients. The treatment of choice for this type of enterocolitis is which of the following?
a) ampicillin
b) Campylobacter antitoxin
c0 erythromycin
d) ciprofloxacin
2. Cholera develop due to:
a) production of cholera toxin
b) adherence of bacteria to cells of small intextine epithelium
c) both of the above
d) genetical predisposition of the host
3. Which of the following is the most effective noninvasive test for the diagnosing of Helicobacter infection
a) culturing of stomach biopsy samples on enrichment medium
b) detection of H. pylori antigen in stool
c) culturing of stool samples on selective medium
d) rapid urease test
4. Which of the following diseases is not a tick - born disease
a) Lyme disease
b) relapsing fever
c) tularemia
d) leptospirosis
5. Erythrema migrans is the clinical stage characteristic for
a) relapsing fever
b) Lyme disease
c) syphilis
d) Campylobacter - infections
6. The probable cause of the relapsing nature of relapsing fever caused by Borrelia recurrentis is:
a) the sequential appearance of new antibiotic resistant variants
b) successive appearance of new antigenic variants
c) ability to activate of dormancy spores
d) periodic hormonal fluctuations in the host
7. Leptospira interrogans most commonly attach
a) the central nervous system
b) the kidneys
c) the liver
d) all above organs
8. A 22-year-old male presents to his physician, complaining of a two week history of a sore on his penis. Physical examination shows a firm, raised, red, nontender chancre midway between the base and glans of the penis. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the physician?
a) swab the chancre and culture on Thayer-Martin agar
b) swab the chancre and perform a Gram stain
c) perform a dark-field examination on a swab of the active lesion
d) swab the chancre and culture on blood agar
9. For which of the following organisms is there no animals reservoir?
a) Francisella tularensis
b) Pasteurella multocida
c) Treponema pallidum
d) Brucella melitensis
10. Which of the following organisms is typically transmitted sexually?
a) Brucella suis
b) Yersinia pestis
c) Treponema pallidum
d) Pasteurella multocida
Name _______________________________Group 1
Dr I. Chudzicka-Strugała - 17.03.2006
1. The most common form of infection caused by Clostridium botulinum in U.S. is:
a) infant botulism
b) wound infection
c) food poisoning
d) anaerobic cellulitis
2. Clostridium perfringens infections are commonly associated with:
contamination of wounds
antibiotic treatment
immunosuppression
consumption of water contaminated with sewage
3. A predisposing factor in pseudomembranous colitis (PMC) is:
clindamycin treatment
neonatal age
high dairy products diet
old age ( more than sixty years of age)
4. A 25-years-old medical student presented with a burst appendix. A peritoneal infection developed, despite prompt removal of the organ and extensive flushing of the peritoneal cavity. An isolate from a pus culture was a Gram-negative rod identified as Bacteroides fargilis. Anaerobic infection with B.fragilis is characterized by which one of the following.
A black exudates in the wound
A foul- smelling discharge
A heme-pigmented colony formation
Severe neurologic symptoms
5. A patient was hospitalized after an automobile accident. The wounds became infected and the patient was treated with tobramycin, carbenicillin and clindamycin. Five days after antibiotic therapy was initiated, the patient developed severe diarrhea and pseudomembranous enterocolitis. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea and the more serious pseudomembranous enterocolitis can be caused by which of the following organisms.
B.fragilis
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium perfringens
S.aureus
6. Which of the following pairs of organisms can be routinely responsible for food poisoning
Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus anthracis
C. difficile and C.botulinum
C.perfrinens and Bacillus cereus
Clostridium tetani and B. anthracis
7. Which of the following is the therapy of choise for pseudomembranous enterocolitis
Ampicillin
Ceftriaxone
Erythromycin
Vancomycin
8. Antibiotic therapy is a critical step in the management of patients infected with each of the following microorganisms except for one. What is the exception?
a) B.anthracis
b) C.botulinum
c) C.difficile
d) C.tetani
9. The bowel contains many microorganisms, but which of the following is the most prevalent bacterium?
B.fragilis
E.coli
Lactobacillus
S.epidermidis
10. Specific antitoxin is an important part of treatment in:
a) gas gangrene
b) tetanus
c) enteritis necroticans
d) pseudomembranous colitis
Name_______________________________Group 2
Dr I. Chudzicka-Strugała - 17.03.2006
1. All of the following are important to the epidemiology or pathogenesis of anthrax except:
production of endospores
a reservoir of healthy human carriers
production of a highly lethal exotoxin
possession of an antiphagocytic capsule
2. A 60 year-old man has an abscess for which his physician prescribes a 7- day course of clindamycin. Before completion of the course, the patient returns to the office with cramps, diarrhea and fever of 39ႰC.The results of sigmoidoscopy demonstrate yellowish-white patchy areas on the wall of the colon.Which of the following is true of the causative agent?
Gram stain from the pseudomembranes would yield numerous red rods
the pseudomembranes are classically caused by staphylococcal organisms
the causative agent of the pseudomembranes produces toxins that act as monoglucosyl-transferases that are specific for mammalian Rho protein
the causative agent of the pseudomembranes is rarely found among the gut flora of the general population
3. Surgical instruments are boiled for 10 minutes in saline solution containing Escherichia coli, Salmonella typhi, Staphyloccocus aureus and Bacillus cereus. Which one of the following organisms is most likely to survive this procedure?
E. coli
B. cereus
S. typhi
S. aureus
4. A 25-years-old medical student presented with a burst appendix. A peritoneal infection developed, despite prompt removal of the organ and extensive flushing of the peritoneal cavity. An isolate from a pus culture was a Gram-negative rod identified as Bacteroides fargilis. Anaerobic infection with B.fragilis is characterized by which one of the following.
A black exudates in the wound
A foul- smelling discharge
A heme-pigmented colony formation
Severe neurologic symptoms
5. A patient was hospitalized after an automobile accident. The wounds became infected and the patient was treated with tobramycin, carbenicillin and clindamycin. Five days after antibiotic therapy was initiated, the patient developed severe diarrhea and pseudomembranous enterocolitis. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea and the more serious pseudomembranous enterocolitis can be caused by which of the following organisms.
B.fragilis
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium perfringens
S.aureus
6. Which of the following pairs of organisms can be routinely responsible for food poisoning
Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus anthracis
C. difficile and C.botulinum
C.perfrinens and Bacillus cereus
Clostridium tetani and B. anthracis
7. Which of the following is the therapy of choise for pseudomembranous enterocolitis
Ampicillin
Ceftriaxone
Erythromycin
Vancomycin
8. Antibiotic therapy is a critical step in the management of patients infected with each of the following microorganisms except for one. What is the exception?
a) B.anthracis
b) C.botulinum
c) C.difficile
d) C.tetani
9. The bowel contains many microorganisms, but which of the following is the most prevalent bacterium?
B.fragilis
E.coli
Lactobacillus
S.epidermidis
10. Specific antitoxin is an important part of treatment in:
a) gas gangrene
b) tetanus
c) enteritis necroticans
d) pseudomembranous colitis
Name_______________________________Group 3
Dr I. Chudzicka-Strugała - 17.03.2006
1. Your patient is a 70-year-old man who underwent bowel surgery for colon cancer 3 day ago. He now has a fever and abdominal pain. You are concerned that he may have peritonitis. Which one of the following organisms is most likely to be the cause?
Bacteroides fragilis
Bordatella pertussis
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium tetani
2. Each of the following statements concerning Bacteroides fragilis is correct except:
B.fragilis is a Gram-negative rod that is a part of the normal flora of the colon
B. fragilis forms endospores, which allow it to survive in the soil
The capsule of B. fragilis is an important virulence factor
B. fragilis infections are characterized by foul-smelling pus
3. Five days ago, a 65-year-old woman with a lower urinary tract infection began taking ampicillin.
She now has a fever and severe diarrhea. What is the most likely causative agent?
Clostridium difficile
Bacteroides fragilis
Proteus mirabilis
Bacillus anthracis
4. A 25-years-old medical student presented with a burst appendix. A peritoneal infection developed, despite prompt removal of the organ and extensive flushing of the peritoneal cavity. An isolate from a pus culture was a Gram-negative rod identified as Bacteroides fargilis. Anaerobic infection with B.fragilis is characterized by which one of the following.
A black exudates in the wound
A foul- smelling discharge
A heme-pigmented colony formation
Severe neurologic symptoms
5. A patient was hospitalized after an automobile accident. The wounds became infected and the patient was treated with tobramycin, carbenicillin and clindamycin. Five days after antibiotic therapy was initiated, the patient developed severe diarrhea and pseudomembranous enterocolitis. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea and the more serious pseudomembranous enterocolitis can be caused by which of the following organisms.
B.fragilis
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium perfringens
S.aureus
6. Which of the following pairs of organisms can be routinely responsible for food poisoning
Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus anthracis
C. difficile and C.botulinum
C.perfrinens and Bacillus cereus
Clostridium tetani and B. anthracis
7. Which of the following is the therapy of choise for pseudomembranous enterocolitis
Ampicillin
Ceftriaxone
Erythromycin
Vancomycin
8. Antibiotic therapy is a critical step in the management of patients infected with each of the following microorganisms except for one. What is the exception?
a) B.anthracis
b) C.botulinum
c) C.difficile
d) C.tetani
9. The bowel contains many microorganisms, but which of the following is the most prevalent bacterium?
B.fragilis
E.coli
Lactobacillus
S.epidermidis
10. Specific antitoxin is an important part of treatment in:
a) gas gangrene
b) tetanus
c) enteritis necroticans
d) pseudomembranous colitis
Name _______________________________Group 1
20.03.2006 dr Michalska
Ziehl-Neelsen technique is used to stain:
Mycobacterium avium complex
Mycobacterium bovis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
all of the above
A virulence factor that causes Mycobacterium tuberculosis to clump together and grow in a “serpentin-like” fashion is:
cord factor
endotoxin
M protein
simply capsule
Positive niacin test is diagnostic of:
a) Mycobacterium avium
b) Mycobacterium leprae
c) Mycobacterium bovis
d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
4. Lövenstein-Jensen medium permits to culture:
Mycobacterium leprae
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
both of the above
none of the above
5. An acid-fast smear on a patient's sputum is positive. The tuberculin test, however, is negative. A more definitive diagnosis could be obtained by:
paying attention to the patient's history
a chest X-ray
repeat of the sputum smear
laboratory culture and speciation
6. Mycobacterium spp. belong to:
rapidly growing bacteria
slowly growing bacteria
microaerophilic bacteria
d) anaerobic bacteria
7. Test with tuberculin establishes diagnosis of infection with:
a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) Mycobacterium leprae
c) Mycobacterium avium
d) all of the above
8. Which of the following is the most common way in which tuberculosis is acquired?
a) Gastrointestinal tract
b) Genital tract
c) Respiratory tract
d) Skin
9. Mycobacterium cell walls are characterized by which one of the following
a) mycolic acids
b) polysaccharide capsule
c) sialic acid polymers
d) flagellae
10. Virulence in mycobacteria is most strongly correlated with:
a) mycotoxin production
b) slow growth
c) composition of the cell envelope
d) dependence on oxygen for growth
Name _______________________________Group 2
20.03.2006 dr Michalska
1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis induces:
a) tuberculosis of intestines
b) pulmonary tuberculosis
c) tuberculosis of bones
d) all of the above
2. Positive tuberculin test depends on:
cell mediated immunity against Mycobacterium tuberculosis
humoral immunity
both types of the immune response
none of the above
3. Positive niacin test is diagnostic of:
a) Mycobacterium avium
b) Mycobacterium leprae
c) Mycobacterium bovis
d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
4. Each of the following statements concerning Mycobacterium tuberculosis is correct EXCEPT:
M. tuberculosis has a large amount of mycolic acid in its cell wall
M. tuberculosis appears as red rod in acid-fast stained specimen
M. tuberculosis appears as red rod in Gram-stained specimens
M. tuberculosis grow slowly
5. Miliary tuberculosis is an example of disease that is:
a) chronic
b) local
c) acute
d) asymptomatic
6. Test with lepromin establishes diagnosis of infection with:
a) Mycobacterium avium
b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c) Mycobacterium bovis
d) Mycobacterium leprae
7. Lövenstein-Jensen medium permits to culture:
a) Mycobacterium leprae
b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c) both of the above
d) none of the above
8. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can be found in the sputum of patients with tuberculosis. After digestion of the sputum isolation is best accomplished using which one of the following?
a) Lőwenstein-Jensen medium
b) Sheep blood agar
c) SS agar
d) Manitol salt agar
9. Virulence in mycobacteria is most strongly correlated with:
a) mycotoxin production
b) slow growth
c) composition of the cell envelope
d) dependence on oxygen for growth
10. An acid-fast smear on a patient's sputum is positive. The tuberculin test, however is negative. A more definitive diagnosis could be obtained by:
a) paying attention to the patient's history
b) a chest X-ray
c) repeat of the sputum smear
d) laboratory culture and speciation
Name _______________________________Group 3
20.03.2006 dr Michalska
1. A virulence factor that causes Mycobacterium tuberculosis to clump together and grow in a “serpentin-like” fashion is:
a) cord factor
b) endotoxin
c) M protein
d) simply capsule
2. Positive tuberculin test depends on:
a) cell mediated immunity against Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) humoral immunity
c) both types of the immune response
d) none of the above
3. Lövenstein-Jensen medium permits to culture:
a) Mycobacterium leprae
b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c) both of the above
d) none of the above
4. Positive niacin test is diagnostic of:
a) Mycobacterium avium
b) Mycobacterium leprae
c) Mycobacterium bovis
d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
5. Each of the following statements concerning Mycobacterium leprae is correct EXCEPT:
a) in lepromatous leprosy, large number of organisms are usually seen
in acid-fast-stained smears
b) the organism will grow on bacteriologic media in 3-6 weeks
c) prolonged therapy (9 month or longer) is required to prevent recurrence
d) skin test for delayed hypersensitivity are useful diagnostically
6. Pathogenic mechanisms involved in tuberculosis can be primarily attributed to which of the following?
a) cell - mediated hypersensitivity
b) humoral immunity
c) toxin production
d) bacterial capsule
7. Which of the following is the most common way in which tuberculosis is acquired?
a) Gastrointestinal tract
b) Genital tract
c) Respiratory tract
d) Skin
8. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can be found in the sputum of patients with tuberculosis. After digestion of the sputum isolation is best accomplished using which one of the following?
a) Lőwenstein-Jensen medium
b) Sheep blood agar
c) SS agar
d) Manitol salt agar
9. Which one of the following is characteristic of mycobacteria?
a) They contain mycolic acids
b) They grow extracellularly
c) They are anaerobic
d) They are spore-forming
10. An acid-fast smear on a patient's sputum is positive. The tuberculin test, however is negative. A more definitive diagnosis could be obtained by:
a) paying attention to the patient's history
b) a chest X-ray
c) repeat of the sputum smear
d) laboratory culture and speciation
Name _______________________________Group 1
24.03.2006 dr T.Tułecka
1. A. 39-year-old man presented with sudden, influenza-like symptoms. He stated that he worked in a slaughterhouse, and several of his coworkers had similar symptoms. Early stages of pneumonia were detected.
a) Has an incubation period of four to six weeks
b) Is an acute febrile illness caused by Coxiella burnetii
c) Is an illness confined to the upper respiratory tract
d) Is most commonly found in tropical regions
2. Rickettsiae:
a) have eukaryotic-type cell organization
b) cause contagious infections because they are disseminated by respiratory droplets
c) are clinically sensitive to penicillin
d) generally invade the endothelial lining of capillarieas, causing small hemorrhages
3. A 23-year-old college senior presented to the student health clinic with symptoms of a suspected sexually transmitted disease (STD). Neisseria and Chlamydia agents were ruled out. Which of the following organisms was the most likely cause of his nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)?
a) Mycoplasma fermentans
b) Mycoplasma mycoides
c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d) Ureaplasma urealyticum
4. Which of the following is most characteristic of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection:
a) infection results in a fever of sudden onset accompanied by a productive cough
b) infection most commonly occurs in the upper respiratory tract
c) infection is definitively diagnosed by direct microscopic examination of sputum
d) reinfection is rare and less severe than primary infection
5. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is a venereal disease caused by serotype L1, L2, or L3 of Chlamydia trachomatis. The differential diagnosis should include which of the following?
a) Lues
b) Chancroid
c) Mononucleosis
d) Psittacosis
6. Chlamydophila pneumoniae, sometimes known as Chlamydia “TWAR”, is the most recent Chlamydophila species to be associated with human disease. Which one of the following statements best describes C. pneumoniae?
a) C. pneumoniae has been associated with myocardial infarction
b) C. pneumoniae infections are generally severe
c) C. pneumoniae infections are uncommon-up to 10% of adults may show specific antibody
d) Infections with C. pneumoniae usually arise from bacterial overgrowth in the colon
7. Which one of the following is characteristic of chlamydiae:
a) reticulate bodies are infectious, extracellular from of the organism
b) most genital tract infections are asymptomatic and are undiagnosed and untreated
c) sensitive to -lactam antibiotics
d) stain gram positive
8. A feature of Chlamydia that is unique to this genus is:
a) the requirement of an obligate intracellular habitat
b) its replicative cycle is distinguished by two morphologic forms that develop in cytoplasmic vacuoles
c) its use of host coenzymes of energy metabolism
d) all of the above
9. All of the following are true statements about Chlamydia trachomatis EXCEPT which one?
a) it infects several types of epithelial cells
b) it has a reservoir in domestic fowl
c) it has a number of serotypes (about fifteen) that correlate with the syndrome produced on
infection
d) it presently causes the most common sexually transmitted disease in the United States
10. What organism causes trachoma:
a) Chlamydophila psittaci
b) Chlamydia trachomatis
c) Chlamydophila pneumoniae
d) Coxiella burnetii
Name _______________________________Group 2
24.03.2006 dr T.Tułecka
1. Which of the following characterizes rickettsiae, which include the spotted fevers, Q fever, typhus, and scrub typhus?
a) Easily stained (gram-negative) with a Gram stain
b) Maintained in nature, with humans as the mammalian reservoir
c) Obligate intracellular parasites
d) Stable outside the host cell
2. What organism causes trachoma:
a) Chlamydophila psittaci
b) Chlamydia trachomatis
c) Chlamydophila pneumoniae
d) Coxiella burnetii
3. Young children in a small Egyptian village had eye infections that presented with lacrimation, discharge, and conjunctival hyperemia. Scarring of the conjunctiva and noticeable loss of vision occurred in some. Which of the following statements would describe the etiologic agent causing these infections and relative treatment?
a) The organisms are gram-positive and treatable with penicillin
b) The organisms have no cell wall and will only respond to tetracycline
c) The organisms are gram-negative, and prophylactic use of tetracyclines can prevent
infections
d) Gram stains of conjunctival scrapings are useful diagnostic tests to justify treatment with
sulfonamides
4. Which one of the following organisms is associated with nongonococcal urethritis in humans?
a) M. fermentans
b) M. pneumoniae
c) M. orale
d) U. urealyticum
5. Which of the following is the causative of Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
a) C. trachomatis
b) C. burnetii
c) M. hominis
d) R. rickettsii
6. Postpartum fever due to Mycoplasma hominis is treated with:
a) tetracycline
b) erythromycin
c) penicillin G
d) a second-generation cephalosporin
7. A 35-year-old small animal veterinarian presents with severe headache, myalgia, and splenomegaly in addition to pulmonary findings. A scanty sputum was obtained, containing a few mixed bacteria and scattered mononuclear cells on routine Gram staining:
a) Chlamydia pneumoniae
b) Chlamydia psittaci
c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d) Streptococcus pneumoniae
8. Which one of the following most correctly describes Rickettsia rickettsii:
a) is sensitive to tetracyclines
b) infects red blood cells, resulting in hemolysis and production of rash
c) is spread by aerosol droplets
d) diagnosis is made by Gram stain of punch biopsies from areas of rash
9. Complications following C.trachomatis (D-K serotype) infection in females:
a) pneumonia
b) pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
c) febrile illness with No Rash
d) influenza - like disease
10. A college student visits the outpatient clinic, complaining of headache, malaise developing over several days, and a hacking nonproductive cough. He is mildly febrile. A chest x-ray shows a greater degree of bronchopulmonary infiltration than suggested by the physical findings:
a) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
b) Haemophilus influenzae
c) Chlamydophila psittaci
d) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Name _______________________________Group 3
24.03.2006 dr T.Tułecka
1. A forest worker experienced a sudden onset of fever, headache, myalgias, and prostration. A mascular rash developed several days later, with it appearing first on the hands andfeet before moving onto his trunk. Rocky Mountain spotted fever was diagnosed. Which treatment is utilized for this disease?
a) Cephalosporin
b) Erythromycin
c) Sulfonamides
d) Tetracycline
2. Complications following C.trachomatis (D-K serotype) infection in male:
a) influenza - like disease
b) febrile illness with No Rash
c) Reiter syndrome
d) pneumonia
3. A homosexual male presented to his physician with bilateral inguinal buboes (lymph nodes), one of which seemed ready to rupture. He recalled having two small, painless genital lesions that healed rapidly. The etiologic agent was isolated using McCoy cells.
a) In the United States, it is more common among women
b) The causative agent is C. trachomatis
c) The disease (LGV) does not become chronic
d) Penicillin is effective in early treatment
4. Which one of the following organisms normally inhabits the female genital tract but may cause acute respiratory illness?
a) M. fermentans
b) M. hominis
c) M. pneumoniae
d) M. orale
5. Coxiella burnetii:
a) has no reservoir other than humans
b) causes a pneumonitis called Q fever
c) causes symptomatic disease only in the lower respiratory tract
d) is found only in the United States
6. A 30-year-old woman complained of unrelenting headache, accompanied by fever, chills, and malaise. After two to four days, a dry cough developed. Chest X-rays reveal a patchy, diffuse bronchopneumonia involving both lobes. Her white cell count was not elevated. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Legionellosis
b) infection with Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) infection with Haemophilus influenzae
d) infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae
7. A 15 day-old male presents with purulent conjunctivitis. Iodine staining bodies are seen in conjunctival scarpings. The most likely infections from is:
a) elementary body
b) endospore
c) exotoxin
d) vegetative cell
8. Which of the following laboratory tests for Mycoplasma pneumoniae is the most specific and sensitive:
a) cold agglutinin
b) complement fixation test
c) Gram stain
d) a DNA probe to the Mycoplasma pneumoniae 16S ribosomal RNA
9. The vector of Rocky Mountain spotted fever is the:
a) human body louse
b) rat flea
c) dog tick
d) mosquito
10. Both chlamydia and mycoplasma are sensitive to:
a) doxycycline
b) penicillin
c) ceftriaxone
d) metronidazole
Name: Group 1
27.03.2006 dr E. Andrzejewska
1. Actinomyces spp. are:
a) Gram-positive, sporulating bacteria
b) Gram-positive rods or filaments
c) Gram-positive cocci
d) Gram-positive encapsulated rods
2.The major species of Actinomyces appear as saprophytes in:
a) the oral cavity
b) on the skin
c) in the urinary tract
d) in the intestines
3. Abdominal actinomycosis may represent:
a) complication following abdominal surgery
b) spread of pulmonary infection
c) sequel of intestinal trauma
d) all of the above
4. In the treatment of actinomycosis the following antibiotics can be used:
a) penicillin
b) nystatin
c) both of the above
d) gentamycine
5. Actinomyces naeslundii can be a causative agent of:
a. diarrhoea
b. periodontal disease
c. meningitis
d. all of the above
6. The best material for laboratory diagnosis of the actinomycosis is:
a. blood
b. pus from abscesses
c. sputum
d. feces
7. A 60 year old patient with cancer, receiving intensive chemotherapy, was diagnosed to have pulmonary infection. In the patient׳s sputum acid fast rods were present. The most probable causative agent was:
a) Actinomyces israelii
b) Nocardia asteoides
c) Haemophilus influenzae
d) Actinomyces naeslundii
8. Which from following sentences is not true:
a) most of Nocardia strains are acid-fast bacteria
b) Nocardia spp. forms Gram-positive branching filaments in tissue
c) nocardiosis occurs more frequently in patients who were treated with high dosages of sulfonamides
d) nocardiosis is mainly a disease of immunosupressed patients
9. The disc diffusion technique for testing drug sensitivity of bacteria:
a) permits to determine bacterial sensitivity or resistance to antibiotics checked
b) permits to determine MIC value
c) permits to determine MBC value
d) permits to determine either MIC or MBC value
10. The E-test is used to determine:
a) MIC value
b) MBC value
c) both MIC and MBC values
d) the level of antibodies against tested microorganisms
Name:…………………………….……Group 2
27.03.2006 dr E. Andrzejewska
1. All forms of actinomycosis are characterized by:
a) swelling
b) abscess formation
c) draining sinuses
d) all of the above
2. Cervicofacial actinomycosis can occur in patients:
a) after tooth extraction
b) as nosocomial infection
c) as food-borne infection
d) as zoonotic infection
3. Thoracic actinomycosis may result from:
a) extension of cervicofacial actinomycosis
b) inhalation of microorganisms from the oral cavity
c) complicated tooth extraction
d) all of the above
4. Actinomyces naeslundii can be a causative agent of:
a) diarrhoea
b) periodontal disease
c) meningitis
d) all of the above
5. The best material for laboratory diagnosis of the actinomycosis is:
a) blood
b) pus from abscesses
c) sputum
d) feces
6. Which type of actinomycosis can be treated with penicillin:
a) cervicofacial
b) thoracic
c) abdominal
d) all forms of actinomycosis
7. Nocardia spp. are:
a) anaerobic Gram-positive rods
b) aerobic Gram-positive rods
c) aerobic Gram-positive rods producing spores
d) Gram-positive encapsulated cocci
8. A 60 year old patient with cancer, receiving intensive chemotherapy, was diagnosed to have pulmonary infection. In the patient׳s sputum acid fast rods were present. The most probable causative agent was:
a) Actinomyces israeli
b) Nocardia asteoides
c) Haemophilus influenzae
d) Actinomyces naeslundii
9. Which from following sentences is not true:
a) most of Nocardia strains are acid-fast bacteria
b) Nocardia spp. forms Gram-positive branching filaments in tissue
c) nocardiosis occurs more frequently in patients who were treated with high dosages of sulfonamides
d) nocardiosis is mainly a disease of immunosupressed patients
10. The disc diffusion technique for testing drug sensitivity of bacteria:
a) permits to determine bacterial sensitivity or resistance to antibiotics checked
b) permits to determine MIC value
c) permits to determine MBC value
d) permits to determine either MIC or MBC value
Name:……………………………Group 3
27.03.2006 - dr E. Andrzejewska
1. Actinomyces spp. are:
a) Gram-positive, sporulating bacteria
b) Gram-positive rods or filaments
c) Gram-positive cocci
d) Gram-positive encapsulated rods
2. The major species of Actinomyces appear as saprophytes in:
a) the oral cavity
b) on the skin
c) in the urinary tract
d) in the intestines
3. Cervicofacial actinomycosis can occur in patients:
a) after tooth extraction
b) as nosocomial infection
c) as food-borne infection
d) as zoonotic infection
4. Which type of actinomycosis can be treated with penicillin:
a) cervicofacial
b) thoracic
c) abdominal
d) all forms of actinomycosis
5. The best material for laboratory diagnosis of the actinomycosis is:
a) blood
b) pus from abscesses
c) sputum
d) feces
6. Actinomyces naeslundii can be a causative agent of:
a) diarrhoea
b) periodontal disease
c) meningitis
d) all of the above
7. A 60 year old patient with cancer, receiving intensive chemotherapy, was diagnosed to have pulmonary infection. In the patient׳s sputum acid fast rods were present. The most probable causative agent was:
a) Actinomyces israelii
b) Nocardia asteoides
c) Haemophilus influenzae
d) Actinomyces naeslundii
8. Nocardia spp. are:
a) anaerobic Gram-positive rods
b) aerobic Gram-positive rods
c) aerobic Gram-positive rods producing spores
d) Gram-positive encapsulated cocci
9. The disc diffusion technique for testing drug sensitivity of bacteria:
a) permits to determine bacterial sensitivity or resistance to antibiotics checked
b) permits to determine MIC value
c) permits to determine MBC value
d) permits to determine either MIC or MBC value
10. The E-test is used to determine:
a) MIC value
b) MBC value
c) both MIC and MBC values
d) the level of antibodies against tested microorganisms
Name:………………………………………….Group 1
11.04.2006 dr T. Tułecka
1. A chronic infection of hepatitis B is defined as having demonstrated the presence of
a) HBsAg for more than 1 month
b) HBsAg for more than 3 months
c) Antibody against HBsAg for more than 6 months
d) HBcAg for 3 months
2. To design a vaccine against HIV infection, a logical goal would be to alter some native molecule or product of the virion in order to make it highly immunogenic. If you wished to prevent the attachment of the virus to helper T lymphocytes, which molecule or family of molecules might best be targeted?
a) gp 41
b) gp 120
c) nucleocapsid protein
d) p24
3. The most common natural mode of transmission of infection with hepatitis B virus is via:
a) contaminated water supply
b) body fluids, such as blood
c) direct contact
d) respiratory droplets
4. What virus is noted for genetic reassortment, which leads to major pandemics about once every 10 to 11 years?
a) Adenovirus
b) Herpes virus
c) HIV
d) Influenza virus
5. An obstetrician sees a pregnant patient who was exposed to rubella virus in the
eighteenth week of pregnancy. She does not remember getting a rubella
vaccination. Which of the following represents the best immediate course of
action?
a) administer rubella immune globulin
b) administer rubella vaccine
c) order a rubella antibody titer to determine immune status
d) terminate the pregnancy
6. Which of the following molecular biology methods is the best for detection of HIV:
a) PCR
b) Northern blot
c) Southern blot
d) Western blot
7. Within the first years of life, an infant exhibited sever hearing loss, ocular abnormalities, and apparent mental retardation. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection was detected by viral isolation and PCR. Which of the following statements best characterizes CMV?
a) it can be transmitted across the placental barrier
b) while a common infection, CMV is almost always symptomatic
c) the CMV culture can be cultured from red blood cells of infected patients
d) There is no specific therapy for CMV
8. The diagnosis of a rotavirus infection:
a) can, in most cases, be made on the basis of the clinical presentation
b) can be made on epidemiologic grounds (for example, if there is an epidemic)
c) can be made (test by which rotavirus antigens) Slidex Rota Kit
d) is routinely made by electron microscopy of suitably treated stool samples
9. Which specimen is best for cytomegalovirus?
a) blood
b) cerebrospinal fluid
c) cervical tissue
d) skin
10. In a latent viral infection
a) cytopathic effects are commonly seen
b) many viral particles are shed from infected cells
c) the virus is not replicating in the cell
d) the virus is replicating actively but few viral particles are being released
Name:……………………………………Group 2
11.04.2006 dr T. Tułecka
1. In a latent viral infection
a) cytopathic effects are commonly seen
b) many viral particles are shed from infected cells
c) the virus is not replicating in the cell
d) the virus is replicating actively but few viral particles are being released
2. Serological test results from a hepatitis patient reveal: anti-HBcIgM positive, HBsAg positive, HBeAg positive. The correct interpretation of patient's status is:
a) Immune to hepatitis B virus
b) Evidence of receiving hepatitis B vaccine
c) Hepatitis B virus chronic carrier state
d) Acute hepatitis B
3. A 30-year-old man develops fever and jaundice. He consults a physician, who finds that blood tests for HBs antigen and anti-HBs antibody are negative. Which one of the following additional tests is most useful to establish that the hepatitis was indeed due to hepatitis B virus?
a) HBe antigen
b) Anti-HBc antibody
c) Anyi-HBe antibody
d) Delta antigen
4. First serological marker indicative of HIV infection is:
a) p24
b) gp 160
c) anti p24
d) all of above
5. Which of the following molecular biology methods is the best for detection of CMV
a) PCR
b) Nested PCR
c) Western blot
d) Northern blot
6. A nurse develops clinical symptoms consistent with hepatitis. She recall sticking herself with a needle approximately four months before, after drawing blood from a patient. Serologic tests for HBsAg , antibodies to HBsAg, and hepatitis A virus (HAV) are all negative, however, she is positive for IgM core antibody. Which of the following characterizes the current health state of the nurse?
a) does not have hepatitis B
b) has hepatitis A
c) has hepatitis C
d) is in the “window” ( after the disappearance of HBsAg and before the appearance of anti-HBsAg)
7. The “asymptomatic period” following the initial acute disease due to HIV infection is characterized by:
a) high levels of HIV replication in lymphoid tissue
b) high levels of HIV replication in circulating T lymphocytes
c) inability of the immune system to respond to antigenic stimuli
d) high titers of free virus in the blood
8. Atypical lymphocytosis is most likely to be found in which one of the following disease?
a) Encephalitis caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV)
b) Chronic hepatitis C
c) Mononucleosis induced by Epstein -Barr virus
d) Rotavirus gastroenteritis
9. Which one of the following groups of people may be at increased risk for HIV infection?
a) factory workers whose coworkers are HIV- positive
b) foreign service employees who are hospitalized in Zair for bleeding ulcers
c) homosexual females
d) receptionists at a hospital
10. Patients should be vaccinated annually for influenza with which of the following vaccines:
a) immune serum globulin
b) inactivated virus vaccine
c) killed virus vaccine
d) live virus vaccine
Name:……………………….…………Group 3
11.04.2006 - dr T. Tułecka
1. The diagnosis of the influenza virus:
a) can, in most cases, be made on the basis of the clinical presentation
b) must be made rapidly so that specific antiviral therapy is initiated as soon as posible
c) can be made on the basis of an ability to agglutinate red blood cells without an antigen-antibody reaction (viral hemagglutination)
d) a and c are correct
2. First serological marker indicative of HIV infection is:
a) p24
b) gp 160
c) anti p24
d) all of above
3. Rotavirus can be ethiological factor of:
a) nonbacterial meningitis
b) diarrhea
c) conjuctivitis
d) all of above
4. Serological test results from a hepatitis patient reveal: anti-HBcIgM positive, HBsAg positive, HBeAg positive. The correct interpretation of patient's status is:
a) Immune to hepatitis B virus
b) Evidence of receiving hepatitis B vaccine
c) Hepatitis B virus chronic carrier state
d) Acute hepatitis B
5. In a latent viral infection
a) cytopathic effects are commonly seen
b) many viral particles are shed from infected cells
c) the virus is not replicating in the cell
d) the virus is replicating actively but few viral particles are being released
6. From 1918 until 1956 the only subtype of influenza that was seen in humans was H1N1 was replaced by H2N2. This is an example of:
a) viral interference
b) phenotypic mixing
c) antigenic shift
d) antigenic drift
7. The typical clinical syndrome associated with rotavirus infection is
a) acute gastroenteritis of the young adults
b) acute bronchiolitis of infants
c) acute hepatitis
d) nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea in infants and very young children
8. A hospital worker is found to have hepatitis B surface antigen. Subsequent tests
reveal the presence of e antigen as well. Which of the following best describes the
worker?
a) is infective and has active hepatitis
b) is infective but does not have active hepatitis
c) is not infective
d) has both hepatitis B and hepatitis C
9. Which of the following markers is usually the first viral marker detected after hepatitis B infection?
a) HBcAg
b) HBeAg
c) HBsAg
d) HBeAg
10. Which of viruses can be responsible for central nervous system infections:
a) HIV
b) Hepatitis B virus
c) Rabies virus
d) All of above
Name: Group 1
21.04.2006r. - mgr B. Zwoździak
Polymerase chain reaction denotes:
amplification of DNA fragment of an unknown sequence using polymerase
molecular cloning of DNA of a known sequence using a standard E.coli strain
amplification of a DNA fragment of a partially known sequence using polymerase in vivo
amplification of fragment DNA which lies between two regions of known sequence in vitro
Select the best set of reagents for the classic PCR reaction:
enzyme buffer, nucleotides, primer, polymerase, internal control
primer, internal control, polymerase, nucleotides, distilled H2O
3 primers, nucleotides, polymerase, DNA, internal control, enzyme buffer
one pair of primers, nucleotides, polymerase, enzyme buffer, distilled H2O
In Southern bloting, DNA is visualized by:
its position in agarose gel
antibodies
antibiotic resistance
DNA probes
Which one of the following is a molecular test?
lactose fermentation
ELISA
acid-fast stain
Fingerprinting
What kind of hybrid is detected by Northern blot test:
DNA-DNA
RNA-RNA
Protein-protein
All of above
The most frequent sources of contamination in the course of the PCR reaction involves:
a) DNA sequences amplified in the preceding reaction
b) positive control used in the reaction
c) DNA sample from another analyzed patient
d) all of the above
Methods of DNA detection include:
a) Western blot
b) Gel Electrophoresis
c) Gene cloning
d) All of above
8. Select appropriate sequence of steps in PCR reactions:
a) hybridization, denaturation, extension, terminal extension
b) denaturation, annealing, extension
c) hybridization, extension, denaturation, annealing
d) denaturation, extension, annealing
9. The most serious current problem of PCR reactions includes:
unknown sequence of nucleotides in the amplified fragments
low specificity of the method
contamination
technical problems in specific primers synthesis
10.Which of the following biological materials is not recommended as a source of DNA for the PCR reaction in patients
with infectious diseases:
whole blood
serum
erythrocytes
tissue biopsy samples
Name: Group 2
21.04.2006r. - mgr B. Zwoździak
1. Hybridization denotes:
a) technique of jonning two complementary strand of DNA
b) amplification of a DNA fragmentof know sequence using polymerase
c) technique of seperating molecules
d) chain reaction developed in vitro
2. Southern blotting is used to identify:
a) antibiotic resistance in a cell
b) RNA in a cell
c) DNA in a cell
d) protein in a cell
3. The most frequent sources of contamination in the course of the PCR reaction involves:
a) DNA sequences amplified in the preceding reaction
b) positive control used in the reaction
c) DNA sample from another analyzed patient
d) all of the above
4. Which one of the following is a molecular test?
a) sorbitol fermentation
b) latex agglutination test
c) Gram stain
d) DNA-DNA hybridization
5. The particular DNA segment to be amplified out of much large DNA template is determined by
a) sequences of the primers
b) length of the primers
c) amount of primer added to the reaction
d) length of the annealing
6. Method of protein detection includes
a) Western blot
b) Southern blot
c) PCR
d) Northern blot
7. Select appropriate sequence of steps in PCR reactions:
a) hybridization, denaturation, extension, terminal extension
b) denaturation, annealing, extension
c) hybridization, extension, denaturation, annealing
d) denaturation, extension, annealing
8. Which of the following biological materials is recommended as a source of DNA for the in situ hybridization:
a) erythocytes
b) tissue biopsy sample
c) serum
d) urine
9. Select infectious disease in which application of Western blot can be best motivated
a) Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
b) HIV infection
c) staphylococcal sepsis
d) meningitis
10.Method of RNA detection include:
a) Western blot
b) Northern blot
c) Fingerprints
d) all of above
Name: Group 3
21.04.2006r. - mgr B. Zwoździak
PCR reaction is a cycle consisting of 3 steps. Chose the right succession of these steps:
DNA denaturation, Annealing, Extension
Extension, Annealing, DNA denaturation
Annealing, DNA denaturation, Extension
None of them
What does RFLP mean ?
Resistance Force Length Polymorphism
Restriction Fragment Low Polymorphism
Resistance Fluor Limitation Polymorphism
Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism
Indicate the false characteristic of PCR:
It can detect a single DNA molecule in a sample.
It needs the culture of a clinical sample
It uses pair of primers
It is a cycle consisting of 3 steps
In Western Blot hybridization method, why are the proteins treated with the detergent SDS ?
In order to remove the 2' and 3' structure and coats with negative charges.
In order to stain the proteins and to be able to see them with visible light.
In order to isolate from a sample of single-stranded DNA
In order to immobilize on a solid support
What is the definition of Nested-PCR ?
PCR reaction that uses reverse transcriptase
PCR reaction that consists of 2 successive PCR reactions
PCR reaction that cuts DNA with restriction enzymes
None of them
Which of the following molecular biology methods is the best for detection of HIV:
PCR
Northern blot
Southern blot
Western blot
Northern blotting is used to identify:
Antibiotic resistance in a cell
RNA in a cell
DNA in a cell
Protein in a cell
What kind of hybrid is detected by Southern blot test:
DNA-DNA
RNA-RNA
Protein-Protein
All of above
Hybridization denotes:
Technique of joining two complementary strand of DNA
Amplification of a DNA fragment of know sequence using polymerase
Technique of separating molecules
Protein chain reaction developed in vitro
Which one of the following is not a molecular test:
FISH
RFLP
ISH
ELISA
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