fce june2000 0100 0102 MCJX5EWX3UXGBFTJL76OV4MUUB5V3XFILOKFXUI

First Certificate in English

Examination Report

Syllabuses 0100 and 0102

JUNE 2000

CONTENTS

Page

Introduction

Paper 1 - Reading

Paper 2 - Writing

Paper 3 - Use of English

Paper 4 - Listening

Paper 5 - Speaking

Feedback Form

INTRODUCTION

The First Certificate in English examination appeared in its revised format for the first time in
December 1996.

This Report is intended to provide a general view of how candidates performed on each
paper and to offer guidance on the preparation of candidates. Candidates took either FCE
Syllabus 100 (Tuesday) or FCE Syllabus 102 (Saturday).

The overall pass rate for 0100 was 74.76% and for 0102 was 76.50%.

The following table gives details of the percentage of candidates at each grade.

0100

0102

GRADE

PERCENTAGE

7.96

7.34

25.90

26.23

40.90

42.94

10.01

9.73

15.23

13.77

•

Grading

Grading took place during July 2000 (approximately six weeks after the examination).

The five FCE papers total 200 marks, after weighting. Papers 1-5 are each weighted to 40
marks. The candidate’s overall FCE grade is based on the total score gained by the
candidate in all five papers. Candidates do not ‘pass’ or ‘fail’ in a particular paper, but rather
in the examination as a whole.

The overall grades (A, B, C, D, and E) are set according to the following information:

•

statistics on the candidature;

•

statistics on the overall candidate performance;

•

statistics on individual items, for those parts of the examination for which this is
appropriate (Papers 1, 3 and 4);

•

the advice of the Principal Examiners, based on the performance of candidates, and on
the recommendation of examiners where this is relevant (Papers 2 and 5);

•

comparison with statistics from previous years' examination performance and candidature.

Results are reported as three passing grades (A, B and C) and two failing grades (D and E).
The minimum successful performance which a candidate typically requires in order to
achieve a grade C corresponds to about 60% of the total marks. Every candidate is provided
with a Statement of Results which includes a graphical display of the candidate’s
performance in each component. These are shown against the scale Exceptional – Good –
Borderline – Weak and indicate the candidate’s relative performance in each paper.

•

Awards

The Awarding Committee meets after the grade boundaries have been confirmed. It deals
with all cases for special consideration, e.g., temporary disability, unsatisfactory examination
conditions, suspected collusion, etc. The committee can ask for scripts to be re-marked,
check results, change grades, withhold results, etc. Results may be withheld because of
infringement of the regulations or because further investigation is needed. Centres are
notified if a candidate’s result has been scrutinised by the Awarding Committee.

•

Notification of Results

Statements of results slips are issued through centres approximately two months after the
examination has been taken. Certificates are issued about six weeks after the issue of
statements of results slips. Requests for a check on results may be made through centres,
within one month of the issue of statements of results.

UCLES produces the following documents which may be of use in preparing candidates for
FCE:

•

Regulations (produced annually, for information on dates, etc.);

•

FCE Handbook (for detailed information on the examination and sample materials);

•

Examination Report (produced after each administration);

•

Past Paper Pack (available approximately 10 weeks after each examination session,
including Question Papers for Papers 1 - 4, sample Speaking Test materials, answer
keys, cassette, and Paper 2 mark schemes and sample scripts).

Users of this Examination Report may find it useful to refer simultaneously to the
relevant Past Paper Packs. These, together with further copies of this report are available
from:

EFL Information

University of Cambridge Local Examination Syndicate

1 Hills Road

Cambridge

CB1 2EU

Tel:

+44 (1)223 553355

Fax:

+44 (1)223 460278

email:

efl@ucles.org.uk

www.cambridge-efl.org.uk

Feedback on this Report is very welcome and should be sent to the Reports Co-ordinator,

EFL, at the above address. Please use the feedback form at the end of this report.

PAPER 1 - READING

Part

Task Type and Focus

Number of

Questions

Task Format

Multiple-matching

Main focus: main points

Syllabus

0100

Syllabus

0102

A text preceded by multiple-
matching questions.

Candidates must match a
prompt from one list to a
prompt in another list, or match
prompts to elements in the text.

Multiple-choice

Main focus: detail

A text followed by four-option
multiple-choice questions.

Gapped text

Main focus: text structure

A text from which paragraphs
or sentences have been
removed and placed in jumbled
order after the text. Candidates
must decide from where in the
text the paragraphs or
sentences have been removed.

Multiple-matching,
multiple-choice

Main focus: specific
information

As Part 1

•

Marking

Candidates record their answers on a separate answer sheet, which is scanned by
computer. Questions in Parts 1, 2 and 3 carry two marks each. Questions in Part 4 carry
one mark each. The total score is adjusted to give a mark out of 40.

•

Candidate performance

In general, candidates coped very competently with the four task formats of the papers. The
difficulty levels of the two papers, as ascertained from pretesting, were comparable.
Statistical evidence showed that the questions in all four parts provided a very reliable
assessment of candidates' relative ability levels.

Syllabus 0100 (Tuesday)

Part 1, Rock the boat

This summary-sentence task, focusing on the understanding of the main points in the text,
was competently handled by most candidates, and was the easiest part of the test.
Questions 3 and 6 were the easiest, while Question 1 was the most difficult. The most
popular incorrect response was D. While the 'delay' in the text is certainly a problem, the
element of rising to a challenge is not evident in the paragraph.

Part 2, A new voice on the radio

This four-option multiple-choice task focused mainly on candidates' detailed comprehension,
but also included a reference question. Question 11 stood out as the easiest item, while 10
caused more problems, particularly for the weaker group. Option A was their favoured
choice. Margherita refers to 'the odd disaster', a phrase which candidates would not be
expected to understand out of context, but they would be expected to realise at this level that
'For instance' introduced one example of several errors.

Part 3, Welsh mountains

This gapped-paragraph task, focusing on text structure, discriminated well, and was, in
general, competently handled. Questions 15 and 16 proved to be straightforward for most
candidates, with 19 being the most difficult. In this question, weaker candidates were
apparently unable to make the connection between 'it died away' and 'the storm around us'.
Their incorrect responses were evenly spread, while almost all the good candidates gave the
correct response.

Part 4, A place to play

This multiple-matching task focused on candidates' ability to retrieve specific information
from the text. The easiest questions were 25, 26 and 30, while 33 and 34 posed more
problems for weaker candidates, and their answers were again evenly spread over the
incorrect options. Again, almost all the good candidates got the questions right.

Syllabus 0102 (Saturday)

Part 1, A state of isolation

This summary sentence task, focusing on the understanding of the main points in the text,
was very well handled by most candidates. Questions 1 and 7 were generally well
answered, and only 2 caused particular difficulty. Weaker candidates tended to choose G,
presumably matching 'sudden' in the question to 'expanded suddenly' in the text. However,
that reference in paragraph 2 is to 'gold-rush communities', not the 'overgrown construction
camp', i.e. Anchorage.

Part 2, Testing the water

This four-option multiple-choice task focused mainly on candidates' detailed comprehension,

but also included reference and lexical items. Questions 9 and 10 were the easiest, while 14

caused more difficulty, with the weaker candidates' incorrect responses being evenly spread

among the distractors. The most common incorrect choice was B. It was the tutor, not the

writer, who 'found the water too rough', and there is in fact no evidence in the text that the

writer ever got into the water during the afternoon session.

Part 3, Close to the edge

This gapped-paragraph task, focusing on text structure, was the most difficult part of the
paper, and discriminated very well. Question 17 was the easiest, and no items stood out as
causing an unusual level of difficulty.

Part 4, The joys of orienteering

This multiple-matching task focused on candidates' ability to retrieve specific information
from the text. This was the easiest part of the paper for most candidates with no questions
causing particular problems. Questions 22, 28 and 32 were particularly well answered.

•

RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION

Teachers and students should note that no single FCE 1 paper includes all possible tasks or
question-types. The FCE Handbook lists all the task types which may appear on the paper.

In addition to specific examination practice, students should be advised to read as widely as
they can, with a range of reading purposes reflecting those sampled in the paper (retrieving
relevant information, getting the 'gist', understanding detail, etc). Many of the texts for the
Reading Paper are drawn from magazines and newspapers, rather than books, and students
will benefit from being familiar with these types of text.

•

DOs AND DON’Ts for FCE PAPER 1 READING

read the whole text first. In Part 3, concentrate on the overall direction of the
text, and try to predict what information is missing from each of the gaps.
Research indicates that strong candidates can use a variety of strategies on
this task with some success. However, working on the extracts before forming
a sound grasp of the base text tends to lead to confusion among weaker
candidates.

avoid being attracted solely by the presence in the text of a word used in the
question ('word-spotting'). (All parts, but see specifically 0102 Part 1 for a
clear example.) The mere presence of the word is no guarantee that it is the
correct answer.

constantly review your choices. In Parts 1 and 3, as you work through the
task, difficulty in finding a particular answer may indicate that you have
already used the correct answer in completing an earlier question. Always be
prepared to go back and check.

spend plenty of time reading English, both fiction and non-fiction. There is no
need to look up everything you don't know in every piece you look at: just
reading for fun will get you used to the rhythm of the language and help to
increase your reading speed.

DON’T

ignore similar information in other sections of Part 1 when you decide on an
answer. There are usually some similarities between sections, and you need
to make sure that your choice matches exactly the question you are asked
(again see 0102 Question 2).

DON’T

forget that, if a Part 2 multiple-choice question is an incomplete sentence, the
whole sentence must match the text, not just the phrase presented as A, B, C
or D. The information in these options may be true in itself, but not work with
the sentence beginning you are given.

DON’T

choose your answers too quickly in Part 3. Look at the whole task first. Fill
what you think are the easy gaps first and deal with the problem areas last.

DON’T

in Part 3, ignore the need to connect introductory adverbs or phrases with the
ideas which go before the gap you are working on (e.g. However must be
preceded by a contrasting idea: Another mistake we made... must be
preceded by a previous mistake etc.).

PAPER 2 - WRITING

Part

Task Type and Focus

Number of Tasks
and Length

Task Format

Q. 1

Writing a transactional
letter (formal/informal)

1 compulsory task

120 – 180 words

Candidates are required to deal
with input material of up to 250
words, which may include
graphic and pictorial material.
Texts may include
advertisements, letters,
postcards, diaries, short
articles, etc.

Q. 2-4

Writing one of the
following:

•

article

•

non-transactional

letter

•

report

•

discursive

composition

•

descriptive/narrative

composition/short story

4 tasks from which
the candidates
choose 1

120 – 180 words

A situationally-based writing
task specified in no more than
70 words.

Q. 5

Writing one of the above
on a prescribed
background reading text

Q. 5 has two
options

•

Marking

All scripts are marked by experienced examiners, who must attend a training and
standardisation session before they commence any marking. Examiners award marks
according to a General Mark Scheme, which has detailed Performance Bands from 0 - 5,
where Band 3 describes a ‘satisfactory’ level. Within the bands, examiners place the script
more exactly at bottom, mid or top of the band range, e.g., 3·1, 3·2, 3·3. These scores are
converted to provide a mark out of 20 for each piece of writing.

Examiners also use a Task Specific Mark Scheme for each question. This describes
satisfactory Band 3 performance and covers content, organisation, range, register and
format, and effect on target reader. Examples of the mark schemes are included in the FCE
Past Paper Packs.

Examiners work in small teams and are monitored and advised by Team Leaders, who in
turn are monitored by the Principal Examiner.

•

Candidate performance

Syllabus 0100 (Tuesday)

Part 1, Question 1

All candidates answered this compulsory question, which required them to write a letter in
response to winning first prize in a competition. Candidates had to deal with all the
handwritten notes on the question paper, giving the competition organiser information
relevant to their forthcoming stay in California.

The question was well done, and many candidates expanded the points appropriately,
especially on the subject of their ability in the chosen activities. At the same time, the
selection of the two activities was sometimes problematic. Some candidates listed more than
two and gave no indication of their first two choices. This had to be penalised, as it was an
unsatisfactory response to Helen Ryan’s original request.

Better candidates produced a good range of language, for example, producing accurate
indirect questions when dealing with the final note. This final point was handled acceptably
on the whole. Any reference to further questions was accepted, though the vast majority of
candidates asked about suitable clothes and money. Better candidates asked about these
things and then went on to ask another question of their own, thus successfully interpreting
the three dots on the question paper (‘clothes, money, …?’)

Some candidates changed the information in the first point, saying that they wished to go in a
month other than July. These answers had to be penalised. A few candidates also omitted to
explain why they preferred a tent or log cabin and again, this brought the mark down.
Candidates who omitted points could only receive a maximum mark in Band 2.

The word ‘accommodation’ was often inaccurately spelt, which is surprising given its
inclusion on the question paper. ‘Swimming’ and ‘photography’ were similarly inaccurately
written.

Part 2

Over 42% of candidates chose Question 4, the informal letter about helping at a pop concert,
though Question 3, the composition on shopping, was also popular (over 38% of candidates
chose this). Around 14% chose the report on making a video about daily life at school. Under
3% of candidates chose one of the set text questions, Questions 5a and 5b, with 5b the more
popular of the two.

Question 2

This was not a popular question and there were few good answers. Many candidates failed
to write in report style. A few gave information that the target reader, their teacher, would
already know (basic information about the school). Some candidates merely described the
daily routine at school, without any reference to a video, and were heavily penalised.

However, better candidates developed the question well, relating the choice of lessons and
activities to a target audience of prospective parents or new students.

Question 3

This question was generally well-answered and the topic was clearly accessible. Candidates
expanded well on the problems and delights of shopping. Some compared ‘traditional’
shopping to e-shopping on the internet, outlining the pros and cons of each method.

To be successful, a composition needs to be clearly organised, with an appropriate
introduction and ending, and a minimum of three paragraphs. Some compositions were hard
to follow through total lack of paragraphing, while others were written as articles rather than
compositions.

Question 4

This was the best-answered question on the paper, with the highest average mark. As with
the previous question, the topic was accessible and candidates had a lot to say. Candidates
showed excellent knowledge of relevant vocabulary. Many were very imaginative in their
descriptions of how they had helped at the concert and their explanations of what they had
particularly liked about the experience.

A few candidates failed to address the task satisfactorily, writing about attending a concert
rather than helping at one. These answers were penalised.

Questions 5a and 5b

Question 5a was not handled successfully. Candidates often wrote about one character at
length, for example Heathcliff in Wuthering Heights, but made no reference to the idea that
bad characters are more interesting than good ones. Others merely regurgitated plot, which
was irrelevant to the task set.

Question 5b was also problematic. Some candidates failed to address the aspect of reading
the book ‘again’, while others merely told the story and failed to relate it to the statement.

That said, there were a few excellent answers to 5b, where candidates produced an
appropriate article, which managed to recommend the book and give readers a flavour of it
without giving away the plot. Answers on The Old Man and the Sea were particularly
successful.

•

Candidate performance

Syllabus 0102 (Saturday)

Part 1, Question 1

All candidates answered this compulsory question, a letter of complaint to the manager of a
theatre. There were five points to be included, as shown in the handwritten notes. Most
candidates managed to deal with all of these, though the point on discounts was sometimes
missed out, possibly because ‘no!’ was overlooked on the question paper. Candidates must
be reminded to read the question carefully to avoid this.

Better candidates expanded on the points well and were able to show a range of vocabulary
and expression, and the best also wrote in a suitably indignant yet polite tone. Candidates
produced inventive reasons for why the restaurant was closed, such as the chef being ill, the
staff being on strike, electrical problems, the finding of rats and insects, and so on.

The request for a refund was generally clear and better candidates made a sarcastic
reference to the wording ‘Your perfect evening out’ in the advert. The tone of the request for
a refund often separated barely adequate candidates from better ones, with weaker
candidates being rather abrupt or rude.

The processing of the 24-hour clock times caused some confusion, with candidates either
misreading the performance time as 9.30 or reproducing it wrongly, for example 30 past 19.

There were some recurrent errors, such as ‘make me a discount’, ‘I would like you return me
some money’, and erroneous use of the present perfect tense ‘I’ve been to your theatre last
week’.

Part 2

Nearly 46% of candidates chose Question 4, the composition on modern technology.
Question 2, the story, was also popular, with 37% of candidates answering it. Only 10.6% of
candidates chose Question 3, the article on fashion in the future. Around 4.5% of candidates
answered one of the two questions on the set books, Questions 5a and 5b, with 5a being the
more popular of the two.

Question 2

This was a popular question, which had the highest average mark on the paper. Candidates
were often quite good at evoking a sense of betrayal and sometimes ended with a moral
(‘Don’t tell Pat!’). Better candidates showed control when using the past perfect tense and
produced appropriate idioms like ‘let the cat out of the bag’.

Problems occurred when candidates omitted any further reference to Pat, or failed to make
any reference to a secret. These answers were penalised.

Question 3

This was not a popular question, but those who attempted it managed quite well, giving
interesting ideas about future clothes – anything from self-cleaning or self-ironing clothes to
ones that changed colour at the touch of a button!

Some weaker candidates failed to expand their ideas with reasons, which is an integral part
of the task (‘explaining why’). These answers were penalised.

Question 4

This question proved to be the most problematic on the paper, but it was also the most
popular question and was well-answered by many candidates. Better candidates often took
a day in their life and described all the technological items they came into contact with, from
radio alarm clocks and electric toothbrushes to microwaves and mobile phones.

However, many weaker candidates gave very vague answers with no concrete examples,
and their writing also tended to lack organisation. Others failed to address the your in the
question, giving general answers about space exploration, nuclear weapons and suchlike,
with no reference to their own lives. These answers were penalised.

Questions 5a and 5b

There were good answers to both questions, and Question 5a was especially popular,
producing some excellent letters on Cry Freedom and The Old Man and the Sea. The main
problem on 5a was that of balance. Some candidates dealt unduly with the radio programme
and persuading the friend to listen, but included little relevant information about the book.
Others focused on the plot of the book without relating this to the radio programme.

There were some very good answers to Question 5b on Cry Freedom.

•

RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION

In general, the continuing message has to be for candidates to read each question carefully
and carry out the task required, rather than ‘bending’ the question to fit an earlier piece of
writing they may have done. Information about the target reader and the reason for writing is
given in each question to help the candidate, and this should be borne in mind during
classroom preparation. Working with past papers in pairs or groups, where students spend
time identifying the reader, the text type, and the important content points, is all useful
planning.

It is often very instructive for students to work on a second draft of a homework answer. In
this way, the teacher, or fellow students, can make useful suggestions regarding
organisation, language, and content omissions. The second draft can then be compared to
the first, which is not only instructive regarding weaknesses, but also builds confidence.

Part 1

Both the 0100 and 0102 questions had annotated handwritten notes for the candidate to
process and use. Candidates should make sure they cover all these points in their answers,
reworking the notes in a more suitable register. It is important for students to be made aware
of formal and informal register, and then to consistently use one or the other, as appropriate.

Candidates should also be encouraged to develop the points, using a range of language.
The use of the three dots (…) is an invitation for candidates to expand with ideas of their
own.

Candidates often score lower marks because they haven’t organised their writing well.
Spending time on paragraphing and the use of linkers is recommended, although students
should try to use linkers selectively, rather than fronting every sentence with one.

Part 2

For any composition, students should ideally brainstorm their ideas in class, as often they
need to think through an argument, or review what language they need in order to express
their opinions. Planning before writing the answer is also important, to avoid repetition and to
ensure that the argument is presented in the most logical way, and suitably paragraphed.

A lot of work can be done in class to raise awareness of how articles are written. Textbooks
usually contain a number of real articles and their presentation can be examined as a starting
point for writing, for example, the relationship between the title and opening paragraph, the
devices used to engage the reader, the register used.

Stories generally require a range of past tenses to be used and this area can be practised in
class: for example, the use of the past perfect to show time sequence. Fellow students can
be asked to give their opinion about other students’ stories, in terms of their clarity of plot,
their effectiveness in holding attention, their general language range. Here, especially, a
second draft approach is often useful.

Work can be done in class on report layout, with some consideration of organising devices
such as headings. For example, students could be given an unparagraphed piece of text,
where all the necessary information is included, though not in a logical order. Students would
then have to impose a report layout on the piece, and re-order the information into
meaningful sections.

Candidates should be discouraged from reproducing a lengthy, pre-learned opening
paragraph in an informal letter, as this is often seen as irrelevant to the task and can send
their writing off at a tangent.

There are many ways to incorporate a set text into the classroom, and parts of it can be
assigned for homework. Students will benefit from reading on their own, both in terms of new
vocabulary and the reinforcement of structures already learnt. Early examination in class of
past papers will allow students to practise questions regularly, in relation to different parts of
the book.

If candidates are to be prepared for the set book option, they must be trained in reading and
answering the question. A question that includes a statement will require that statement to be
dealt with in relation to aspects of the book that are seen as relevant. Students should be
encouraged to produce some initial ideas, to be discussed in class or reviewed with their
teacher before an assignment is finally written up. In this way, adequate guidance can be
given on content and task achievement.

•

DOs and DON'Ts for FCE PAPER 2 WRITING

read the question thoroughly and underline important parts.

make a plan for each answer.

write in paragraphs, whenever appropriate.

use a range of vocabulary, even if you are unsure of the correct spelling.

check past tense endings, plural forms, and word order in sentences.

write clearly, so that the examiner can read your answer.

use the extra blank pages at the back of the booklet if necessary.

DON’T

mis-spell key words which appear on the question paper.

DON’T

‘lift’ too much language from the question paper.

DON’T

mix formal and informal language.

DON’T

waste time writing addresses for a letter, as they are not required.

DON’T

answer Question 5 if you haven’t read one of the books.

DON’T

write out the plot of the book in Question 5, as this may be irrelevant.

DON’T

worry if you run slightly over the 180-word limit.

PAPER 3 - USE OF ENGLISH

Part

Task Type and Focus

Number of

Questions

Task Format

Multiple-choice cloze

Focus: Vocabulary

A modified cloze text containing
15 gaps and followed by 15
four-option multiple-choice
questions.

Open cloze

Focus: Grammar and
vocabulary

A modified cloze text containing
15 gaps.

‘Key’ word transformations

Focus: Grammar and
vocabulary

Discrete items with a lead-in
sentence and a gapped
response to complete using a
given word.

Error correction

Focus: Grammar

A text containing errors. Some
lines of the text are correct.
Other lines contain an extra
and unnecessary word which
must be identified.

Word formation

Focus: Vocabulary

A text containing 10 gaps. Each
gap corresponds to a word.
The ‘stems’ of the missing
words are given beside the text
and must be transformed to
provide the missing word.

•

Marking

Candidates write their answers on a separate answer sheet, which is marked according to a
mark scheme and then scanned by computer.

Questions 1-30 and 41-65 carry one mark each. Questions 31-40 are marked on a scale

0-1-2. The total score is adjusted to give a mark out of 40.

•

Candidate performance Syllabus 100 (Tuesday)

Part 1, Everyone’s an artist

Multiple-Choice Cloze

This part of the paper proved to be rather easier than the other four parts. Only Questions
15 and, to a lesser extent, 8 produced major problems. In 15, there was a tendency for
weaker candidates to opt for the inappropriate ‘move’ (A) or ‘step’ (B). In 8, ‘despite’ (B) was
a fairly common choice even though the presence of ‘are’ two words later made this an
impossible combination. Candidates scored well on all the other questions, numbers 4, 5,
10, 11 and 14 giving very few problems indeed.

Part 2, Problems for actors

Open Cloze

The performance of candidates on this part of the paper was very similar to that on Parts 3, 4
and 5. The two most difficult questions were numbers 23 and 29, indeed 29 was the most
difficult question on the whole of the paper. In 23, it seemed clear that the use of ‘which’
after a preposition was not widely known. Some candidates put down a noun (e.g.
rehearsal) as the answer but, whilst this was correct when the phrase was taken in isolation,
it was made incorrect by the remainder of the sentence. Candidates need to look at the
whole of a sentence before deciding on their answer; to look at just the words immediately
before and after the gap can lead to errors. In 29, it was clear that a two-word phrase
beginning with ‘At’ was necessary and this led many candidates to write ‘least’ or ‘last’,
presumably, without looking at the context which made both of these words inappropriate.
The questions which proved easiest in this part were 17, 19, 21 and 30

Part 3

‘Key’ Word Transformations

In 31, a number of candidates changed the prompt word from ‘like’ to ‘likes’, thus depriving
themselves of marks. Many candidates in 32 inserted an incorrect ‘to’, i.e. ‘let us to park’.
The most common error in 33 was to produce a wrong tense, i.e. ‘if I have seen’. A more
careful reading of the initial sentence in 34 would have prevented candidates from making ‘a
hole’ into ‘holes’. In both 36 and 39, candidates had problems in producing the correct word
to follow ‘attention’ and ‘efficient’ respectively. Number 37 produced, perhaps predictably,
confusion between ‘lending’ and ‘borrowing’. In 38, a good number of candidates produced
‘might not remember’ thus losing sight of the past tense in the initial sentence. Despite these
errors, most candidates performed quite well on this part of the paper.

Part 4, A letter of complaint

Error Correction

The two questions which gave the greatest amount of difficulty were lines 45 and 49. Line 45
was, in fact, a correct line but many candidates decided that the word ‘for’ was wrong. It is
true that the line makes sense if ‘for’ is omitted, but the inclusion of ‘for’ in no way makes the
line incorrect. In this part of the paper the answer to any one incorrect line must be a word
that is actually wrong in the context, not simply one that is superfluous. In line 49, once
again ‘for’ was often judged to be incorrect even though its presence here was vital for the
meaning of the sentence. Some candidates still fail to follow the instructions for indicating a
correct line and use their own system. Misaligned answers were also quite common.

Part 5, Airports

Word Formation

A large number of candidates failed to produce the correct answer for number 60. Although
most were able to form ‘communication’ from ‘communicate’, relatively few realised that the
word needed to be in the plural because of the following verb. It is not enough to look at the
base word (the word in capitals) and simply to form a new word from this, it is necessary to
look at the whole of the sentence to decide upon the final form of the word.

•

Candidate performance

Syllabus 0102 (Saturday)

Please note that the report below is based on performance in December 1999. The report
on June 2000 will be available at a later date.

Part 1, Harbours

Multiple Choice Cloze

Although there were some questions which turned out to be fairly easy (e.g. 2, 3 and, particularly,
7), this was by far the most difficult part of the paper for candidates. Numbers 4, 13 and 14
caused considerable problems. In 4, option A (‘whole’) was a popular choice with the weaker
candidates, whilst those of the more able candidates who failed to choose the correct option
tended to settle for C (‘high’). In 13, a large number of candidates decided (wrongly) that A (‘up’)
was the appropriate particle to go with ‘bring’ in this case. Although few candidates in question
14 chose options B and D, the question proved difficult as a great number chose C (‘system’).

Part 2, Images of life

Open Cloze

There was a fairly wide range of difficulty in this section. Questions which candidates found very
easy were numbers 17, 19, 20 and 28. On the other hand, questions 21, 23 and 26 turned out
to be very difficult for most candidates. In question 23, ‘their’ was a common choice. This would
seem to be quite a reasonable answer if one reads only the first half of the sentence. However,
when one reads the second half, the meaning shows that the missing word must be ‘its’. In 26, it
was clear that the use of ‘would’ to express repeated events in the past was not known by many
candidates. Question 25, although generally well done, did quite often produce the spelling error
of ‘then’ instead of the key ‘than’.

Part 3

Key’ Word Transformations

Most of the questions here were answered quite well with numbers 31, 39 and 40 causing the
greatest number of problems. When deciding what must be put in the answer, it is of course
necessary to make sure that the completed sentence (i.e. the frame and the key) covers all the
elements of the stimulus sentence. In 31, many candidates failed to gain the full two marks
because they omitted ‘for us’ which is, of course, one of the elements of the stimulus sentence.
In 39, some candidates chose to write ‘can be’ or ‘could be’ at the beginning of their answer;
these were not acceptable (although ‘will be’, ‘would be’ as well as ‘is’ were accepted). A variety
of answers appeared for 40; some candidates wrote ‘no doubt that Mary’ assuming that ‘want’
was a third person singular form of the verb.

Part 4, Job interviews

Error Correction

Candidates generally did well on this part of the paper, particularly in lines 42 and 50 and 51.
However, line 49 was very difficult (in fact, this was the most difficult question on the whole

paper). Most candidates considered the line to be correct, although a few thought that ‘by’ was
an incorrect insertion. Presumably, most candidates read the line rather too quickly and assumed
that ‘a’ was in fact present before ‘few’. If the ‘a’ is omitted this rather negates the first part of the
sentence.

Part 5, A tired driver

Word Formation

Part 5 was the part of the paper with which candidates had the fewest difficulties. The question
which gave most problems was, perhaps not surprisingly, number 60 where many were unaware
of the suffix ‘less’. Few candidates had problems with 57 and 63; it was pleasing to note that in
the former candidates realised that it was necessary to double the ‘l’.

•

RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION

In Part 3, some candidates continue to alter the prompt word, sometimes to another form of
the same word, sometimes to a completely different word. Candidates will always lose
marks for doing this as they are changing the point being tested. Other candidates in Part 3
sometimes simply omit the prompt word in their answers and indicate its presence by a dash
or a blank. This is not satisfactory as markers cannot tell if such candidates had, in their
minds, changed the word in some way. Once again, it is important that candidates write the
prompt word out in full in just the same way as it appears on the question paper.

In Part 4, candidates must read the two initial lines which contain the examples. As well as
indicating how to present the answers, these lines set the theme for the passage and often
are of importance in deciding how to answer the first tested line.

In Part 4, there were examples of candidates identifying certain words as being wrong when,
in fact, they were simply superfluous. A superfluous word is not an error and must not be
identified as such. Only words which are actually wrong in the context should be given as
answers. Note the following:

She told me that her father now spends a lot of his time in Spain.

This sentence is perfectly correct. Although ‘his’ is by no means vital and can be omitted
without changing the meaning, the word is not wrong but merely superfluous. However, in
the following sentence ‘his’ is not merely superfluous, but is actually wrong:

She told me how much his time her father now spends in Spain.

In both Parts 4 and 5, some candidates continue to misalign their answers, i.e. they put, for
example, the answer for line 46 in the space for line 47. This often happens when a
candidate accidentally forgets to put an answer for one line. Markers try not to penalise
candidates for making such slips. Candidates should be careful to write an answer in every
space.

•

DOs and DON’Ts for FCE PAPER 3 USE OF ENGLISH

make sure in Part 3 that any verb in your answer is in the appropriate tense.

remember that your answer in Part 3 must not consist of more than 5 words.

read the lines containing the examples in Part 4 before beginning to write your
answers.

check the context in Part 5 before deciding on your answer.

remember that in Part 5 some words may be in the plural.

DON’T

use abbreviations in your answers (e.g. ‘sthg’ for ‘something’).

DON’T

give alternative answers in any Part of the test.

DON’T

choose more than one option for any one question in Part 1.

DON’T

leave a blank in your answers for Part 3 where the prompt word should be;
write the word in full.

DON’T

copy out the whole of the sentence in Part 3 when giving your answer.

DON’T

decide that words are wrong in Part 4 simply because they are superfluous.

PAPER 4 - LISTENING

Part

Task Type and Focus

Number of
Questions

Task Format

Multiple-choice

Understanding gist, main
points, detail, function,
location, roles and
relationships, mood,
attitude, intention, feeling
or opinion

A series of short unrelated
extracts, of approximately 30
seconds each, from
monologues or exchanges
between interacting speakers.
The multiple-choice questions
have three options.

Note-taking or blank-filling

Understanding gist, main
points, detail or specific
information, or deducing
meaning

A monologue or text involving
interacting speakers and lasting
approximately 3 minutes.

Multiple-matching

As for Part 1

A series of short related
extracts, of approximately 30
seconds each, from
monologues or exchanges
between interacting speakers.
The multiple-matching
questions require selection of
the correct option from a list
of 6.

Selection from 2 or 3
possible answers

As for Part 2

A monologue or text involving
interacting speakers and lasting
approximately 3 minutes. The
questions require candidates to
select between 2 or 3 possible
answers, e.g., true/false;
yes/no; three-option multiple-
choice; which speaker said
what, etc.

•

Marking

Candidates write their answers on a separate answer sheet, which is marked according to a
detailed mark scheme and then scanned by computer.

Each question carries one mark. The total score is adjusted to give a mark out of 40.

For security reasons, more than one version of the Paper 4 Listening Test is made available
at each session. As with all other FCE papers, rigorous checks are built into the question
paper production process to ensure all versions of the test are of comparable content and
difficulty. In addition, for Paper 4, the marks are adjusted to ensure that there is no
advantage or disadvantage to candidates taking one particular version.

All texts and tasks were representative of what can be expected in future versions of the
Paper. In Part 4, three-way matching tasks as outlined in the FCE Specifications may
appear in future versions.

•

Candidate performance

Candidates performed very well on all versions of the Paper, with no particular task type
proving significantly more difficult than any other.

Part 1

Candidate performance on this part was generally very good on all versions. Some
questions presented more difficulty than others, although there was again nothing to suggest
that questions with particular test focuses generally present greater difficulty than questions
with other test focuses.

In Test A, the most challenging questions were 3 and 8. For 3, some candidates chose C
rather than B. However, the man's comment to the woman at the end that he would be
‘putting everything down on your records’ pointed firmly to him being the shop manager and
not another store detective; the woman was probably a store detective and some candidates
may have chosen this option through not paying enough attention to the question, which
asked them who she was talking to and not who she was. For 8, a number of candidates
chose A or B rather than C. The speaker concludes by emphasising that, with regard to the
problem of packaging that has been thrown away, the issue is not ‘whether to do something
now about this but what to do’ - the speaker is therefore saying that action is definitely
required. No comparison is made and no particular product praised during the piece, making
both A and B incorrect.

Part 2

Candidates performed very well on this part.

In Test A, the most challenging question was 10, where many candidates were unable to
produce ‘door handles’, even with some allowance made for minor misspellings of ‘handle’.
No other questions presented particular difficulty.

Part 3

Candidates found this part of the Paper quite challenging in Test A.

In Test A, candidates encountered some difficulties in each question. For 19, many chose E
rather than B. The speaker says that ‘the days drag on a bit’ and that he wishes that he ‘had
more to occupy me’, which points firmly to B. He has to keep ‘filling up the shelves with new
supplies’ but this is because of his manager, not demanding customers, and some
candidates may also have chosen E because he mentions the word ‘demanding’, although
this is in the context of him wanting more demanding things to do and not in connection with
customers. For 20, a number of candidates chose F rather than C. The speaker says that
she and other members of staff ‘have a laugh sometimes’ and that without them the job
would be ‘quite a struggle’, pointing firmly at C. The speaker does refer to money, saying
that some of the others are only doing the job for money and that she is saving up for
something, but she does not say that the pay is better than she had expected. For 21, many
candidates chose B rather than D. The speaker says that he does ‘all sorts of jobs’ in the
shop, making D correct. He also says that there is ‘never a dull moment’, which rules out B,
which candidates may have chosen because he says that ‘he might get a bit bored’ if he was
doing the job full-time, but he isn't. For 22, many candidates chose E rather than A. The
speaker says that working in a shop ‘you're there to help out with whatever the customer
wants’, which equates with A. She does refer to the fact that ‘people might want to know
where a product has been moved to or what's on special offer’, but she clearly regards this
as her duty and does not express a criticism of customers as too demanding. For 23, a great

many candidates chose C rather than F. She says that when she got her first pay, ‘she
hadn't realised how good it would be’, pointing firmly at F. She does refer to the ‘friendly
atmosphere’ in the shop, but she says that it is the customers, not the staff, who produce
this; she says that some of the staff ‘have been a bit bossy with me’ and this rules out C.

Part 4

Candidates found this Part quite challenging. In Test A the task was true/false. There is
nothing to suggest that any of the three possible task types in Part 4, matching, true/false,
multiple-choice, is more difficult than any other.

In Test A, Questions 24, 25 and 26 proved the most challenging. For 24, Gary says that
when he is walking in the street, he has a baseball cap in his pocket ‘and as soon as it looks
like trouble’ (by which he means as soon as he thinks someone has recognised him) he puts
it on and covers his eyes with it; he therefore doesn't always wear it when he's outside, he
only wears it if he thinks someone has recognised him. For 25, he says that he ‘thought at
one time that I'd have to give up using the underground’, which indicates that he in fact has
not given up travelling on the London underground, making the answer False. For 26, he
says that his mother knew what going to stage school involved and ‘how easy it was to fail’,
but he does not say that she thought he was too young to go there.

•

RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION

Part 1

Candidates should be aware that, by design, this part gives them a chance to orientate
themselves to the Listening Test in a relatively gentle way. Unlike elsewhere, they both hear
and read the questions, and they should realise that this gives them ample time to predict the
possible content of the text. However, careful listening is still required, particularly since an
option that may seem to be obviously correct on a superficial listening may not in fact be
correct. Additionally, teachers should give adequate practice in dealing with all the text types
and focuses listed on page 19, as all Part 1 sections in the test include as wide a range as
possible of these.

Part 2

In preparing for this part of the test, candidates should be encouraged to establish the best
approach to writing words and phrases, as opposed to choosing from options, since the
productive task presents different challenges from those presented by the other tasks. They
should not detain themselves on a question they are struggling with, as this may prevent
them from answering subsequent questions which may have provided them with little or no
difficulty. They should also be aware that most, if not all, the questions involve them writing a
word or phrase that they actually hear; attempting to rephrase what is heard is not expected,
and it may result in candidates giving incorrect answers despite having understood what was
said. Candidates should also know that minor spelling errors are accepted, although the
intention is that most of the words and phrases tested in this task are limited to those which
candidates can reasonably be expected to spell correctly.

Part 3

Candidates should be advised to make good use of the second listening, even if they have
answered every question on the first listening. They may discover that they need to change
more than one answer if they discover an error, because one incorrect answer may have a
knock-on effect on other questions.

Part 4

For multiple-choice question tasks, candidates should be aware that they are given a full
minute in which to read the questions before they hear the piece and that they should use
this time to acquaint themselves with the aspects of the piece they are to be tested on. In
addition, they should realise that, although a particular option is true according to what is said
in the piece, it is not necessarily the correct answer to the question that has been asked.
Thus, the question ‘What did he find annoying about his journey?’ may be followed by more
than one option describing something that really did happen to a speaker, but only one
option will be something that he found annoying.

Candidates should be prepared to encounter any of the three task types in the Specifications
(multiple-choice, true/false, matching) as any of them could appear in any version. They
should know that with all three types they are given adequate time to read the questions
before the piece is heard. With regard to matching tasks, any of the following formats may
arise:

•

choosing from 3 options, e.g., which of the three places does this statement refer to?

•

choosing from one option, another option or both, e.g., which book mentions this: Book A,

Book B or Both of them?

•

choosing from one option, another option or neither option, e.g., which person is this true

of, Person A, Person B or Neither of them?

•

DOs AND DON'Ts for FCE PAPER 4 LISTENING

use the full time you are allowed to read the questions carefully before you
hear each piece. If you are familiar with what you are being asked, it is likely
that it will be easier for you to focus precisely on the points you are being
tested on. In Part 2, this will also help you to anticipate what kind of answer
you will be required to give.

check that your idea of what the correct answer is when you first hear the
piece is confirmed when you hear it for the second time.

expect to write a word or words that you hear on the tape in Part 2.

remember that any error you discover in Part 3 when hearing the piece for the
second time may have an effect on your other answers.

concentrate on gaining an in-depth understanding of what the speakers say
rather than only a superficial one, particularly in Parts 1, 3 and 4.

DON’T

worry if you cannot get all the answers the first time you hear each piece.

DON'T

try to write a more complicated word or phrase than the one you hear in
Part 2.

DON'T

spend too much time on a question you are having difficulty with, as this may
make it harder for you to answer other questions.

DON’T

forget to make sure that you have transferred your answers correctly to the
answer sheet.

PAPER 5 - SPEAKING

Part

Task Type and Focus

Length of Parts

Task Format

Short exchanges between
each candidate and the
interlocutor

3 minutes

The interlocutor encourages
the candidates to give
information about themselves.

Giving personal
information; socialising

Long turn from each
candidate, with a brief
response from the other
candidate

Exchanging personal and
factual information;
expressing attitudes and
opinions; employing
discourse functions related
to managing a long turn

4 minutes

The candidates are in turn
given visual prompts (two
colour photographs) which they
each talk about for
approximately 1 minute. They
are also asked to comment
briefly on each other’s
photographs.

Candidates talk with one
another

Exchanging information,
expressing attitudes and
opinions

3 minutes

The candidates are given visual
prompts (photographs, line
drawings, diagrams, etc.) which
generate discussion through
engagement in tasks such as
planning, problem solving,
decision making, prioritising,
speculating, etc.

Candidates talk with one
another and the
interlocutor

Exchanging and justifying
opinions

4 minutes

The interlocutor encourages a
discussion of matters related to
the theme of Part 3.

•

Marking

The Speaking tests are conducted by trained examiners, who attend biannual co-ordination
sessions to ensure that standards are maintained.

The Assessor awards marks to each candidate for performance throughout the test
according to the four Analytical Criteria (Grammar and Vocabulary, Discourse Management,
Pronunciation and Interactive Communication). The Interlocutor awards marks according to
the Global Achievement scale, which assesses the candidate’s overall effectiveness in
tackling the tasks. These scores are converted by computer to provide a mark out of 40.

•

Candidate Performance

Candidate performance in this administration was consistent with that of December 99 and
historical norms. Feedback from Oral Examiners has been very positive and students overall
were very well prepared for this paper. Feedback indicates that this year's test materials have
been well received. Students who performed less well were those who did not listen carefully
to the instructions given or those who dominated the interaction at the expense of their
partner. To perform well a candidate should answer the task set and therefore should not be
afraid to ask for repetition of instructions before embarking on the task. Candidates should be

made aware that asking for the instructions to be repeated will not affect their marks in any
way, whereas redirection by the examiner once the task has begun may affect their
performance.

Part 1

This part of the test gives the examiners their first impression of the candidates and it is
therefore important that the candidates speak about themselves and their lives with
appropriate detail. One word responses are inadequate and will affect the score for
Interactive Communication. Candidates should also be advised not to prepare long
responses to questions that they feel they may be asked, as this often means that they do
not answer appropriately. This tactic does not lead to effective interactive communication,
and is easily noticed by examiners. Candidates who have not met prior to the test should not
feel concerned, as feedback from examiners indicates that this does not affect performance
and in some cases leads to a more natural interaction in this part of the test.

Part 2

The tendency in this part of the test is for candidates to focus on the pictures without listening
carefully to the task set by the examiner. Simply comparing and contrasting the two pictures
is unlikely to provide the candidate with enough to talk about for a full minute. Candidates will
always be asked to compare / contrast 'and say ... (something specific about the
photographs)...'. They should be trained to listen very carefully for the 'and say......' so that
they complete the task and are able to continue for the full minute. Candidates should not
feel concerned if the examiner interrupts, as this simply means that they have completed the
task. It is important for candidates to start talking as soon as they can in order to make full
use of their long turn.

Comments on released Test Materials

Families

Candidates were shown two photographs of families spending time together. The first
photograph showed a family on a walking holiday with bags on their backs and the second
showed a family enjoying a meal together. Candidates were asked to compare and contrast
the photographs and say how important they thought it was for families to spend time
together. Candidates whose responses were restricted to ‘In this picture I can see a family.
They’re eating. In this picture the family is walking’, will not have performed as well as those
who went on to find further points of comparison e.g. the family inside / outside, family
involved in physical activity / family relaxing. Candidates could also have moved beyond the
pictures themselves to discuss e.g. how important it is for families to sit down to a meal
together, whether families find time to do this today, how enjoyable family holidays are
compared to holidays with friends. In this way candidates will not run out of things to say and
will make full use of their long turn.

Something special

Candidates were given two photographs showing people who had done something special.
The first showed a woman standing on a plane as the plane was flying through the
countryside and the second photograph showed a schoolboy building a model of a street of
houses. Candidates were asked to compare and contrast the photographs, and to say which
person they thought had worked harder. Candidates could have compared the dangerous
nature of flying on top of a plane and the courage required to do this with the patience and

artistic skill necessary to build the model village. They could then have moved on to talk
about how much training is necessary to be able to do the first activity and how much time
and effort might have gone in to the second, which activity they thought would be harder,
which they might like to try and so on.

Part 3

The aim of this part of the test is for candidates to discuss the task outlined by the examiner
as fully as possible, and to work towards a negotiated outcome in the time available. In this
part of the test candidates are always invited to do two things. They are required to respond
to and give their views on a range of visual prompts, then to come to a negotiated decision.
The wording of the rubric is:

First talk to each other about......... Then decide......................

Candidates, presented with the visual stimulus, sometimes fail to hear the first part of the
instructions, which is, in fact, the bulk of the task. Candidates who performed less well were
therefore those who made their decisions very early on in the interaction, without first
considering and discussing as fully as possible the range of suggestions presented to them.
As a result, they ran out of things to say. Candidates should be trained to listen carefully for
the words First talk to each other about..... and to internalise the task set. As already
mentioned in the section on candidate performance, candidates should be made aware that
they will not lose marks if they need to ask the examiner to repeat the rubric.

To perform well in this part of the test candidates should be able to take a full and active part
in the interaction, making use of the range of visual stimulus available, expressing their own
views clearly, listening to their partner and developing their partner's comments. However,
candidates should be aware of the importance of inviting their partner to respond, ensuring
that both candidates take an equal part in the development of the interaction. Candidates
are expected to negotiate an outcome and should not be concerned if they do not agree.
Disagreeing in a friendly way can be an effective part of interactive communication. However,
strong disagreement can undermine their partner's confidence and an overbearing candidate
may lose marks. Candidates should make full use of the time available, starting promptly
and finishing only when the examiner interjects. They should not feel concerned if they are
asked to stop as this will probably mean that they have talked for the allotted time.

Comments on released Test Materials

High speed train

Candidates were asked to imagine that there was going to be a new long-distance train
service in their country and were shown some suggestions for things that could be included
on the train. These suggestions fell into four broad categories:

Facilities available - baby changing, hairdresser, shower room
Food - drinks dispenser, sandwich bar, proper restaurant
For passengers’ use - telephone, newspaper rack, TV in back of seats
Seating - ordinary seats, reclining seats, cabins with beds available

Candidates were asked to talk to each other about how useful these ideas would be for
passengers, then decide which suggestion in each group would be the most popular.
Candidates are often tempted to start with the words ‘I think the telephone would be the most
popular suggestion because.......’. Candidates who did this often performed less well
because they came to their final decision without having fully explored the alternatives.
Candidates should not feel concerned if they are unable to make use of the full range of

visual prompts, but they should have managed to discuss several areas before making their
decision. Candidates should therefore be trained to make full use of the different
suggestions or ideas offered, and come to a negotiated decision towards the end of their
three minutes, rather than making a decision at the outset and running out of things to say. In
this case candidates needed to come to a decision over the four different areas, but
candidates were not penalised if they ran out of time.

Part 4

In this part of the test candidates are given a further opportunity to demonstrate their
language ability by engaging in a three-way discussion with their partner and the examiner. It
is therefore vital that candidates offer more than a minimal response and take the opportunity
to initiate discussion as well as answer the examiner's questions. Candidates who performed
well in this part of the test were those able to develop and illustrate the topic, demonstrating a
range of vocabulary. Candidates generally performed confidently in this part of the test and
were often so enthusiastic that it became necessary for examiners to draw the Speaking Test
to a close!

Comments on released Test Materials

Following the discussion of the High Speed Train (see Part 3), candidates were asked why
they thought some people find long train journeys exciting and how travelling by train
compares with travelling by car. The discussion then became more general, and candidates
were asked what public transport is like in their country, whether they thought people would
ever stop using cars and how long distance travel has changed the way we live. Finally they
were asked what kind of transport they would like to see in the future.
Candidates who performed well were those who responded fully to the questions asked.

•

RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION

Candidates are expected to take a full and active part in the test. It is important, therefore,
that candidates seek as many opportunities to practise their spoken English as possible,
inside and outside the classroom. 'Exam training' can help with nervousness and candidates
certainly benefit from being familiar with the different parts of the test, but this is no substitute
for a genuine interest in the language. Candidates who put themselves in a position where
they need to use English on a regular basis are likely to perform well.

Part 1

For this part of the test candidates will benefit from finding opportunities to practise talking
about themselves, their likes and dislikes, personal / educational history, present
circumstances, plans and hopes for the future etc.

Part 2

Candidates can improve their performance in this part of the test by choosing pairs of
thematically linked photographs, practising comparing and contrasting them, and going on to
talk about the theme in a more general way. Candidates should time themselves to check
that they are able to keep going for a full minute. Without practice candidates may find it
difficult to speak for a full minute in the test.

Part 3

The best preparation for this part of the test is for candidates to practise taking part in
discussions in small groups, so that all candidates have the opportunity to take the floor.
Candidates with a quieter disposition should be encouraged to develop strategies to ensure
they are able to take their turn. Stronger candidates should be encouraged to invite opinions
from others. Suitable thematic areas for discussion can be found in FCE coursebooks and
should relate to the candidate's own experience rather than more abstract concepts.

Part 4

As in Part 3, candidates will benefit from being given as many opportunities as possible to
express their opinions on a range of issues, and to expand on their views, while inviting
opinions from others and responding to them.

•

DOs and DON'Ts FOR PAPER 5 SPEAKING

familiarize yourself with the focus, function and procedures of all parts of the
test.

take every opportunity to practise your English in groups and pairs and outside
the classroom before the test.

listen carefully to instructions given and questions asked throughout the test
and focus your answers appropriately.

respond to your partner's contributions and invite your partner to contribute in
Parts 3 and 4.

speak clearly so that both the assessor and the interlocutor can hear you.

make use of opportunities to speak in all parts of the test and give extended
contributions where you can.

ask for repetition of instructions if you are unclear about what you should do.

make sure that you answer the additional question in Part 2, as well as
comparing and contrasting the photographs.

be prepared to initiate discussion as well as responding to what your partner
has said.

DON'T

prepare long responses in advance. You are unlikely to answer questions
appropriately.

DON'T

try to give your views during your partner's long turn.

DON'T

try to dominate your partner or to interrupt him or her in an abrupt way.

DON'T

allow frequent pauses and hesitations during the interaction or during your
own turn. Make full use of the time available.

DON'T

worry if you disagree with your partner in Parts 3 and 4. As long as you are
not overbearing this is all part of interactive communication.

DON'T

worry about being interrupted by the examiner. For administrative reasons it
is important that tests do not overrun.

FCE Examination Report June 2000 - 0100 and 0102

We are interested in hearing your views on how useful this report has been.

We would be most grateful if you could briefly answer the following questions and return a
photocopy of this page to the following address:

UCLES
Reports Co-ordinator
EFL
1 Hills Road
Cambridge
CB1 2EU

Fax:

+44 1223 460278

Please describe your situation: (e.g. EFL teacher, Director of Studies, Examinations
Officer, Local Secretary, etc.)

Have you prepared candidates for FCE?

YES/NO

Do you plan to prepare candidates for FCE in the future?

YES/NO

How have you used this report? (e.g. to provide feedback to other teachers, for
examination practice, etc.)

Which parts of this report did you find most useful?

Which parts are not so useful?

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Your name (optional) .........................................................................

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Thank you.

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