First Certificate in English

Examination Report

Syllabuses 0100 and 0102

December 2000

CONTENTS

Page

Introduction

Paper 1 - Reading

Paper 2 - Writing

Paper 3 - Use of English

Paper 4 - Listening

Paper 5 - Speaking

Feedback Form

INTRODUCTION

The First Certificate in English examination appeared in its revised format for the first time in
December 1996.

This Report is intended to provide a general view of how candidates performed on each
paper and to offer guidance on the preparation of candidates. Candidates took either FCE
Syllabus 100 (Tuesday) or FCE Syllabus 102 (Saturday).

The overall pass rate for 0100 was 70.76% and for 0102 was 71.18%.

The following table gives details of the percentage of candidates at each grade.

0100

0102

GRADE

PERCENTAGE

8.33

8.60

19.55

18.70

42.88

43.88

10.14

9.80

19.11

19.03

•

Grading

Grading took place during January 2001 (approximately six weeks after the examination).

The five FCE papers total 200 marks, after weighting. Papers 1

`5 are each weighted to 40

marks. The candidate’s overall FCE grade is based on the total score gained by the
candidate in all five papers. Candidates do not ‘pass’ or ‘fail’ in a particular paper, but rather
in the examination as a whole.

The overall grades (A, B, C, D, and E) are set according to the following information:

•

statistics on the candidature;

•

statistics on the overall candidate performance;

•

statistics on individual items, for those parts of the examination for which this is
appropriate (Papers 1, 3 and 4);

•

the advice of the Principal Examiners, based on the performance of candidates, and on
the recommendation of examiners where this is relevant (Papers 2 and 5);

•

comparison with statistics from previous years' examination performance and candidature.

Results are reported as three passing grades (A, B and C) and two failing grades (D and E).
The minimum successful performance which a candidate typically requires in order to
achieve a grade C corresponds to about 60% of the total marks. Every candidate is provided
with a Statement of Results which includes a graphical display of the candidate’s
performance in each component. These are shown against the scale Exceptional – Good –
Borderline – Weak and indicate the candidate’s relative performance in each paper.

•

Awards

The Awarding Committee meets after the grade boundaries have been confirmed. It deals
with all cases for special consideration, e.g., temporary disability, unsatisfactory examination
conditions, suspected collusion, etc. The committee can ask for scripts to be re-marked,
check results, change grades, withhold results, etc. Results may be withheld because of
infringement of the regulations or because further investigation is needed. Centres are
notified if a candidate’s result has been scrutinised by the Awarding Committee.

•

Notification of Results

Statements of results slips are issued through centres approximately two months after the
examination has been taken. Certificates are issued about six weeks after the issue of
statements of results slips. Requests for a check on results may be made through centres,
within one month of the issue of statements of results.

UCLES produces the following documents which may be of use in preparing candidates for
FCE:

•

Regulations (produced annually, for information on dates, etc.);

•

FCE Handbook (for detailed information on the examination and sample materials);

•

Examination Report (produced after each administration);

•

Past Paper Pack (available approximately ten weeks after each examination session,
including Question Papers for Papers 1

`4, sample Speaking Test materials, answer

keys, cassette and tapescript for Paper 4, and Paper 2 mark schemes and sample
scripts).

Users of this Examination Report may find it useful to refer simultaneously to the
relevant Past Paper Packs. These, together with further copies of this report are available
from:

EFL Information

University of Cambridge Local Examination Syndicate

1 Hills Road

Cambridge

CB1 2EU

Tel:

+44 1223 553355

Fax:

+44 1223 460278

email:

efl@ucles.org.uk

www.cambridge-efl.org.uk

Feedback on this Report is very welcome and should be sent to the Reports Co-ordinator,

EFL, at the above address. Please use the feedback form at the end of this report.

PAPER 1 - READING

Part

Task Type and Focus

Number of

Questions

Task Format

Multiple-matching

Main focus: main points

Syllabus

0100

Syllabus

0102

A text preceded by multiple-
matching questions.

Candidates must match a
prompt from one list to a
prompt in another list, or match
prompts to elements in the text.

Multiple-choice

Main focus: detail

A text followed by four-option
multiple-choice questions.

Gapped text

Main focus: text structure

A text from which paragraphs
or sentences have been
removed and placed in jumbled
order after the text. Candidates
must decide from where in the
text the paragraphs or
sentences have been removed.

Multiple-matching,
multiple-choice

Main focus: specific
information

As Part 1

•

Marking

Candidates record their answers on a separate answer sheet, which is scanned by
computer. Questions in Parts 1, 2 and 3 carry two marks each. Questions in Part 4 carry
one mark each. The total score is adjusted to give a mark out of 40.

•

Candidate performance

In general, candidates coped very competently with the four task formats of the papers. The
difficulty levels of the two papers, as ascertained from pretesting, were comparable.
Statistical evidence showed that the questions in all four parts provided a very reliable
assessment of candidates' relative ability levels.

Syllabus 0100 (Tuesday)

Part 1, Weight training

This headings task, focusing on the understanding of the main points in the text, was very
competently handled by most candidates. Questions 1 and 5 were the easiest, while 3 and 4
caused most problems for weaker candidates. Incorrect responses to these questions were
fairly evenly spread.

Part 2, Ireland's wild west

This four-option multiple-choice task focused mainly on candidates' detailed comprehension,
but also included a reference question. Candidates found this to be the easiest part of the
paper, with Questions 13 and 15 being the most straightforward. None of the questions
stood out as particularly difficult overall, though weaker candidates struggled with Question
8. Weak candidates who did not choose the correct answer went for D, suggesting they
possibly misunderstood the force of the parenthetical phrase 'as I did', which refers to the
writer's walk, not to his expectations.

Part 3, Ruth Rendell mystery

This gapped-sentence task, focusing on text structure was, in general, competently dealt
with. Questions 16 and 18 were the easiest, while 19 and 22 were the most difficult overall.
In 19, incorrect answers were evenly spread. Interestingly a high proportion of weak
candidates used the correct answer, E ('I didn't like it and I was bad at it'), as their choice for
22, where there is no indication of support for a past tense. Possibly they did not pick up the
past time reference in the phrase 'a former journalist', which precedes gap 19. Far fewer
good candidates made this error.

Part 4, Because it's still there

This multiple-matching task focused on candidates' ability to retrieve specific information
from the text. The easiest questions on this occasion were 33, 34 and 35. The majority of
the other questions were competently answered, but 25 and 29 caused particular difficulty for
weaker candidates. In 25, they preferred A to the key, E. This suggests a misunderstanding
of the phrase 'finding evidence' in the question, since there are no such events in A. In E,
the elements which make up the key are 'ropes', 'bolts' and 'the mess'. In Question 29, the
most popular incorrect response was D. Here the phrases 'little reduction in the number of
guided tours' and 'today virtually anyone can sign up for an expedition' do not suggest a
'general lack of enthusiasm for climbing Everest' as specified in the question.

Syllabus 0102 (Saturday)

Part 1, Training to save lives

This headings task, focusing on the understanding of the main points in the text, was
competently handled by most candidates. Questions 1 and 2 were extremely well answered,
while 4 and 7 caused more problems for the candidates. In 4, the most popular incorrect
answer was F, 'Difficult cases', when that section of the article refers to only one ‘occasion'.
In 7, a significant proportion of candidates chose H, in preference to the key. The paragraph
does not focus on 'teaching rescuing techniques', but merely mentions 'SCAT training' at one
point. The correct answer, by contrast, is supported by the phrase 'tackle any scale of
emergency thrown at them' and five examples of such emergencies.

Part 2, The showbiz mother

This four-option multiple-choice task focused mainly on candidates' detailed comprehension,
but also included reference and lexical items. Question 11 proved to be the easiest item,
with 14 causing most difficulty. Although incorrect responses were spread out, a significant
proportion of candidates chose A, 'she spent too much time travelling', missing the point that
the writer was 'on call day and night’, not actually travelling all that time. She says that she
had to 'kill time, a lot of which I spent worrying', which combines with a subsequent example
of those worries to support the key, D.

Part 3, Ski industry accused of destroying the Alps

This gapped-sentence task, focusing on text structure, discriminated very well. Question 18
stood out as the easiest item in the task, while the final question, 22, caused most difficulty,
particularly for the weaker group, who, in general, did not cope well with the task. The
correct answer to 22, C, introduces the quotation from the head of a ski club which follows
the gap. Most weak candidates used C earlier in the task, where it was consistently
inappropriate to the pro-environmental arguments being expressed in the surrounding text.

Part 4, First-time inventors

This multiple-matching task focused on candidates' ability to retrieve specific information
from the text. This was the easiest part of the Paper for most candidates. Questions 26, 31
and 35 were particularly well answered. Only Question 27 posed particular problems, with a
significant number of candidates choosing C in preference to the correct answer, A, where
the inventor says, 'if something annoys me, I have to look at ways of improving it.' The
inventor in C resigned from his job, but there is no suggestion of irritation as a motive. He is
also described as 'bruised and battered', but that is a consequence of marketing his
invention, not a stimulus to which he reacted.

•

RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION

Teachers and students should note that no single FCE 1 paper includes all possible tasks or
question types. The FCE Handbook lists all the task types which may appear on the paper.

In addition to specific examination practice, students should be advised to read as widely as
they can, with a range of reading purposes reflecting those sampled in the paper (retrieving
relevant information, getting the 'gist', understanding detail, etc). Many of the texts for the
Reading Paper are drawn from magazines and newspapers, rather than books, and students
will benefit from being familiar with these types of text.

•

DOs AND DON’Ts for FCE PAPER 1 READING

consider possible alternative meanings of heading in Part 1 before attempting
to match them to the text. Look out for figurative language in headings.

avoid being attracted solely by the presence in the text of a word used in the
question ('word-spotting') (all parts). The mere presence of the word is no
guarantee that it is the correct answer.

constantly review your choices. In Parts 1 and 3, as you work through the
task, difficulty in finding a particular answer may indicate that you have
already used the correct answer in completing an earlier question. Always be
prepared to go back and check.

read the whole text first in Part 3. Concentrate on the overall direction of the
text, and try to predict what information is missing in each of the gaps.
Research indicates that strong candidates can use a variety of strategies on
this task with some success. However, working on the extracts before forming
a sound grasp of the base text tends to lead to confusion among weaker
candidates.

pay careful attention to pronouns at the beginning and/or end of extracted
sentences or paragraphs in Part 3. Where appropriate, they must refer
correctly to the nouns which precede and/or follow the gap in the text which
you are considering.

spend plenty of time reading English, both fiction and non-fiction. There is no
need to look up everything you don't know in every piece you look at: just
reading for fun will get you used to the rhythm of the language and help to
increase your reading speed.

DON’T

forget that, if a Part 2 multiple-choice question is an incomplete sentence, the
whole sentence must match the text, not just the phrase presented as A, B, C
or D. The information in these options may be true in itself, but not work with
the sentence beginning you are given.

DON’T

ignore the need in Part 3, to connect introductory adverbs or phrases with the
ideas which go before the gap you are working on (e.g. ‘However’ must be
preceded by a contrasting idea. ‘Another mistake we made ...’ must be
preceded by a previous mistake etc.).

DON’T

ignore the need in Part 3 for the tenses in the extract to fit logically with those
already present in the base text.

PAPER 2 - WRITING

Part

Task Type and Focus

Number of Tasks
and Length

Task Format

Q. 1

Writing a transactional
letter (formal/informal)

1 compulsory task

120 – 180 words

Candidates are required to deal
with input material of up to 250
words, which may include
graphic and pictorial material.
Texts may include
advertisements, letters,
postcards, diaries, short
articles, etc.

Q. 2

Writing one of the
following:

•

article

•

non-transactional

letter

•

report

•

discursive

composition

•

descriptive/narrative

composition/short story

4 tasks from which
the candidates
choose 1

120 – 180 words

A situationally-based writing
task specified in no more than
70 words.

Q. 5

Writing one of the above
on a prescribed
background reading text

Q. 5 has two
options

•

Marking

All scripts are marked by experienced examiners, who must attend a training and
standardisation session before they commence any marking. Examiners award marks
according to a General Mark Scheme, which has detailed Performance Bands from 0

`5,

where Band 3 describes a ‘satisfactory’ level. Within the bands, examiners place the script
more exactly at bottom, mid or top of the band range, e.g., 3·1, 3·2, 3·3. These scores are
converted to provide a mark out of 20 for each piece of writing.

Examiners also use a Task Specific Mark Scheme for each question. This describes
satisfactory Band 3 performance and covers content, organisation, range, register and
format, and effect on target reader. Examples of the mark schemes are included in the FCE
Past Paper Packs.

Examiners work in small teams and are monitored and advised by Team Leaders, who in
turn are monitored by the Principal Examiner.

•

Candidate performance

Syllabus 0100 (Tuesday)

Part 1, Question 1

All candidates answered this compulsory question, a letter to a college principal about a visit
to London. There were three separate pieces of reading input: the principal’s original
programme for the visit, an advertisement for a fashion show in London, and a notepad
showing the points to be included in the letter.

On the whole, the question was well answered, and candidates appeared to find the topic
accessible. For satisfactory Band 3 performance, candidates had to include five points in
their answer. Most candidates achieved this, and the mean mark for the question was above
previous Part 1 averages.

However, some candidates failed to cover adequately the first note on the notepad. It is vital
for candidates to read the question carefully and include everything required. The note asked
for two separate things: thanks for the programme and a specification of what was
‘especially’ good about it. Examiners accepted implicit thanks, but omission of the second
part of the note had to be penalised.

Better candidates expanded the points successfully, for example explaining why they were
looking forward to a particular aspect of the programme, developing the information in the
advertisement, or justifying the visit to the fashion show. In this way, better candidates were
able to demonstrate a good range of vocabulary and structures.

Strong answers also achieved a consistently appropriate polite tone. Conversely, weaker
candidates produced inconsistent register, often being inappropriately forceful when making
suggestions for changes to the programme.

Candidates were generally good at starting and ending their letters appropriately and many
used a good variety of linking devices. Weaker candidates tended to limit themselves to
Firstly, Secondly, Thirdly, Fourthly, following the sequence of the points on the notepad,
which was adequate, but not Band 4 or 5 performance.

Part 2

The most popular questions were 3 and 4. Around 42.5% chose Question 4, the story, while
nearly 39% chose Question 3, the article about homes of the future. Over 14% of candidates
chose Question 2, the composition on the media and famous people. Under 3% chose one
of the set text questions, Questions 5a and 5b (5b was the more popular of the two).

Question 2

This question was generally well done. Better candidates displayed good range and
organised their ideas well. It was clearly a subject that many candidates had thought about
and most were able to refer to actual examples of famous people who have suffered at the
hands of the media to support their arguments.

Question 3

This question had the second highest mean mark on the paper. Candidates included many
interesting ideas about homes of the future, elaborating on both physical and more
philosophical differences from the present. There was some excellent range of vocabulary
used in descriptions and original attempts at article format.

Weaker candidates often planned their articles rather misguidedly, starting from the historical
standpoint of the present and including a largely irrelevant introduction, and then dealing only
briefly with the nub of the question, homes of the future. In certain cases, this may have
arisen from the attempt to draw on a previous class assignment, which is unwise as it causes
candidates to stray from the task set.

Question 4

This question had the highest mean mark on the paper. There were some very imaginative
stories, including bungee-jumping and dangerous rescues. However, in a few cases, the
element of danger was entirely absent, and these scripts were penalised. Some candidates
had problems in linking the story to the prompt sentence in terms of the time sequence,
though better candidates very successfully used flashback to do this.

Occasionally, the second part of the prompt sentence, ‘I knew I had to do it’, was ignored,
which lost candidates marks, as it meant that the story following on did not relate
satisfactorily to the opening sentence.

Questions 5a and 5b

Although there were few answers to Question 5a, it was well done and there were some very
good answers on Cry Freedom and The Old Man and the Sea.

Question 5b was also well answered, especially in relation to The Old Man and the Sea.
However, in some cases, there was insufficient reference to the book. Some candidates
wrote about other books instead of the set texts, and therefore scored 0. This has been
pointed out in previous examination reports.

•

Candidate performance

Syllabus 0102 (Saturday)

Part 1, Question 1

All candidates answered this compulsory question, where they had to write a letter to the
organiser of an international arts festival, giving feedback on this year’s festival and including
a suggestion for next year’s event. For Band 3 satisfactory performance, six points needed to
be included in the letter (see the task-specific mark scheme published in the Past Paper
Booklet).

The majority of candidates had no difficulty with this question, dealing with the points
adequately, linking them and adding small amounts of information. The point concerning the
weekend ticket (‘Excellent because…’) proved a good opportunity for expansion, with ideas
such as ‘a great bargain for families with children…it meant that we did not waste time
standing in queues…it saved us considerable time and money’. However, this point was
also occasionally problematic, with candidates failing to address the ‘because’ element in the
prompt, and this was penalised. A surprising number of candidates confused ‘priced’ with
‘prize’ and erroneously explained that it was reasonable to win a prize at the festival. These
answers were also penalised.

The other content points were mostly unproblematical. The concert halls being too small also
allowed for some expansion, for example ‘...we were so packed in we could not
breathe…concert halls should be light and airy…we had to stand through the concert….’ A
few candidates confused ‘small’ with ‘short’ and strayed into accounts of concerts not being
long enough and finishing too early. As stated in previous reports, it is very important to read
the question carefully and think about the points required before starting to write.

Weaker candidates were unable to achieve an appropriate tone in the letter. Some
misunderstood what was asked for and entered letter of complaint mode, and then inevitably
experienced difficulty combining this negative approach with the first point, (‘Great idea!’).
Better candidates were able to organize their answers well and used suitable linking words to
achieve the right balance between positive and negative features, for example ‘very good’,
‘although…’, ‘…convenient’, ‘whereas’.

Part 2

More than 58% of candidates chose Question 4, the informal letter about rules at home and
at school. Question 2, the article about ways for students to earn money, was the second
most popular question, with around 25% of candidates answering it. Only around 12% of
candidates chose Question 3, the story, perhaps because this required the retelling of a
traditional folk story. Some 3% of candidates answered one of the two questions on the set
books, Questions 5a and 5b. Question 5a was the more popular of the two.

Question 2

This question was well answered and candidates had no difficulty in coming up with ideas for
student jobs, writing about anything from gardening to being a dog walker or pet hairdresser!
There were also some highly enterprising dot.com ventures, which would make students a
fortune in their spare time.

What distinguished the better candidates from the average ones was their approach to the
article task type. Many candidates adopted a convincing direct style, for example ‘Are you an
artist?’, and displayed a real attempt to engage the reader, for example, ‘Believe me, it
works… Be brave!’

Question 3

As stated above, there were relatively few answers to this question. A broad view was taken
of what constituted a ‘traditional folk story’, although candidates who wrote stories on going
shopping with a friend or going for a picnic were penalised. That said, there were many
excellent stories, where the range of language, particularly of appropriate vocabulary, was
striking and the general control of narrative good.

Question 4

This question was well answered on the whole and had the highest mean mark on the paper.
The tone of the letter to the friend was well handled, with the inclusion of appropriate
formulaic expressions. In terms of task completion, some candidates unfortunately failed to
deal both with rules at home and at school, and these scripts were penalised.

Better candidates developed the content well, made good use of modal verbs and organised
their letters well.

Questions 5a and 5b

Answers to these questions that did not mention the book or wrote about a book not on the
list scored 0. Question 5a caused difficulties for some candidates, in that they appeared to
find it problematic to explain their views on the question asked with reference to the book.
Weaker candidates struggled to explain their ideas clearly.

Question 5b was much more successfully answered in this respect and there were some
very good answers, especially on Wuthering Heights and The Old Man and the Sea.

•

RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION

Fundamentally, and as stated many times in these reports, candidates must read each
question carefully and carry out what is required, including the necessary points and keeping
to the task set, rather than ‘bending’ the question to fit an earlier piece of writing they have
done. Information about the target reader and the reason for writing is given in each question
to help the candidate, and this should be borne in mind during classroom preparation.
Working with past papers in pairs or groups, where students spend time identifying the
reader, the text type, and the important content points, is all useful planning.

It is often very instructive for students to work on a second draft of a homework answer. In
this way, the teacher, or fellow students, can make useful suggestions regarding
organisation, language, and content omissions. The second draft can then be compared to
the first, which is not only instructive regarding weaknesses, but also builds confidence.

Part 1

Students should be encouraged to make a plan before they start writing, and should then
think carefully about what they can say on each point. In class, paired discussion can often
lead to more ideas for expansion.

Both 0100 and 0102 required candidates to produce letters containing formal register, with a
suitably polite tone. It is important for students to be made more aware of this aspect of the
Part 1 question, perhaps by spending time discussing what is and is not appropriate. A
successful way to deal with the aspect of tone is to give students examples of highly

inappropriate language, for example aggressive or threatening complaints, and to ask them
to suggest improvements.

Candidates often score lower marks because they haven’t organised their writing well.
Spending time on paragraphing and encouraging the command of a greater variety of linkers
is recommended.

Part 2

For any composition, students should ideally brainstorm their ideas in class, as often they
need to think through an argument, or review what language they need in order to express
their opinions. Planning before writing the answer is also important, to avoid repetition and to
ensure that the argument is presented in the most logical way.

A lot of work can be done in class to raise awareness of how articles are written. Textbooks
usually contain a number of real articles and their presentation can be examined as a starting
point for writing, for example the relationship between the title and opening paragraph, the
devices used to engage the reader, the register used.

Stories generally require a range of past tenses to be used and this area can be practised in
class, for example, the use of the past perfect in flashback to show time sequence. Fellow
students can be asked to give their opinion about other students’ stories, in terms of their plot
clarity, their effectiveness in holding attention, their general language range. Here especially,
a second draft approach is often useful.

Class time could usefully be spent giving strategies for tackling the informal letter,
encouraging students to use as wide a range of language as possible – for example,
brainstorming different ways of saying that something is ‘great’ or ‘boring’, rather than
repeating the same adjectives.

There are many ways to incorporate a set text into classroom work, and parts of it can be
assigned for homework. Students will benefit from reading on their own, both in terms of new
vocabulary and the reinforcement of structures already learnt. Early examination in class of
past papers will allow students to practise questions regularly, in relation to different parts of
the book.

•

DOs and DON'Ts for FCE PAPER 2 WRITING

read the question thoroughly and underline important parts.

make a plan for each answer.

expand the points in Part 1 with relevant ideas and information.

write in paragraphs, whenever appropriate.

use a range of vocabulary, even if you are unsure of the correct spelling.

check past tense endings, plural forms, and word order in sentences.

write clearly, so that the examiner can read your answer.

use the extra blank pages at the back of the booklet if necessary.

DON’T

mis-spell key words which appear on the question paper.

DON’T

‘lift’ too much language from the question paper.

DON’T

mix formal and informal language.

DON’T

waste time writing addresses for a letter, as they are not required.

DON’T

answer Question 5 if you haven’t read one of the books.

DON’T

worry if you run slightly over the 180-word limit.

PAPER 3 - USE OF ENGLISH

Part

Task Type and Focus

Number of

Questions

Task Format

Multiple-choice cloze

Focus: Vocabulary

A modified cloze text containing
15 gaps and followed by 15
four-option multiple-choice
questions.

Open cloze

Focus: Grammar and
vocabulary

A modified cloze text containing
15 gaps.

‘Key’ word transformations

Focus: Grammar and
vocabulary

Discrete questions with a lead-
in sentence and a gapped
response to complete using a
given word.

Error correction

Focus: Grammar

A text containing errors. Some
lines of the text are correct.
Other lines contain an extra
and unnecessary word which
must be identified.

Word formation

Focus: Vocabulary

A text containing 10 gaps. Each
gap corresponds to a word.
The ‘stems’ of the missing
words are given beside the text
and must be transformed to
provide the missing word.

•

Marking

Candidates write their answers on a separate answer sheet, which is marked according to a
mark scheme and then scanned by computer.

Questions 1

`30 and 41`65 carry one mark each. Questions 31`40 are marked on a scale

`1`2. The total score is adjusted to give a mark out of 40.

•

Candidate performance Syllabus 0100 (Tuesday)

Part 1, A famous explorer

Multiple-choice Cloze

This was the part of the paper which gave candidates the fewest problems. The only
question causing considerable difficulty was number 12. Although few were tempted to think
that ‘tour’ (D) was the appropriate word here, many felt, wrongly, that ‘travel’ (A) was the key.
In Question 2, many of the weaker candidates chose ‘manage’ (A) or ‘succeed’ (B) as their
answer. Similarly in Question 10 the weaker candidates had difficulty in distinguishing the
precise meanings of the four verbs listed. Questions 7, 8 and 9 were answered well by
almost all candidates.

Part 2, Indoor climbing

Open Cloze

This part proved rather more difficult than the preceding one. In Question 16, a majority of
candidates showed that they did not know the expression ‘to take up’ in the sense of ‘to
adopt’. Question 22 caused problems even though the mark scheme allowed for a fairly wide
range of answers. In 27, a variety of verbs appeared – unfortunately, most of them were
inappropriate. In 28, there was uncertainty as to which preposition to use. Questions 18, 19,
20 and 26, however, were dealt with well by the majority of candidates.

Part 3

‘Key’ Word Transformations

This part turned out to be difficult for candidates. Wrong prepositions were often used in
Questions 34 (‘insisted in/to’) and 40 (‘had trouble to’). Question 40 generally proved to be
the most difficult with many candidates misunderstanding either the initial sentence or the
significance of ‘trouble’ and producing answers such as ‘got into trouble for following’. Some
candidates inevitably lost marks in 32 by turning the prompt word into ‘stranger’. In 33,
candidates quite often gave a wrong form of the passive, i.e. ‘have been driven’. A common
wrong answer given to 37 was ‘I have not seen Mark since a/one year’. Question 38 gave
candidates a number of problems, common wrong answers being ‘gave a good impression
to’, ‘made a good impression to’. The questions which the candidates dealt with most
successfully were 31 and 32.

Part 4, Finland

Error Correction

This part was generally done well by candidates. Some candidates, however, tended to
write down the first word in the line that they felt to be unnecessary as being wrong; they did
not, apparently, bother to read to the end of the line; thus, in line 41, a common choice was
‘some’ rather than ‘who’. Although 43 was a correct line, many candidates decided that it
contained an error; probably the most common choice was ‘being’ which, whilst not being
vital for the meaning of the sentence, was by no means wrong. Most candidates found little
difficulty in identifying the other correct lines, 46, 48 and 55. In line 52, many candidates
decided, wrongly, that words such as ‘has’, ‘any’, ‘such’ were incorrect whilst ‘the’ was a
common choice as a wrong word in line 54. Lines 42, 44 and 55 were dealt with particularly
well by the vast majority of the candidates.

Part 5, Running round the world

Word Formation

This proved to be the most difficult part of the paper. In spite of this, certain questions were
done very well (57, 59, 65) but others proved extremely difficult for candidates (60, 63 and,
especially, 56 and 64). It was clear in 56 that candidates did not think to use a prefix with
‘ordinary’, presumably because they did not associate the word ‘extraordinary’ with ‘ordinary’.
In 64, many candidates wrote ‘poisoned’ or ‘poisoner’ which suggested either that they had
not understood the passage or that they were simply unaware of the word ‘poisonous’.

•

Candidate performance

Syllabus 0102 (Saturday)

Please note that the report below is based on performance in June 2000. The report on
December 2000 will be available at a later date.

Part 1, Chess king

Multiple-choice Cloze

Candidates’ performance on this part of the paper was very much in line with their
performance on Parts 2, 3 and 5. Question 6 caused difficulties for many candidates as they
were not aware of the word ‘holder’ in relation to a title. The most common wrong answer
was ‘owner’ (A). Many weaker candidates also chose ‘keeper’ (D) as the answer. Question
9 also produced problems; it was often thought that ‘service’ (B) was the most appropriate
word to fill the gap. Questions which proved easy for candidates were 4, 5, 12 and 14.

Part 2, Bees

Open Cloze

Question 27 caused problems for many candidates who assumed that the presence of ‘as’
indicated that it was necessary to fill the gap with a noun which would make a comparison
with the fragile ‘bodies of bees’. As a result of this, bizarre nouns appeared – ‘mosquito’,
’zebra’, ‘frog’, and even ‘snowflake’ and ‘feather’ based on the idea of fragility. A more
careful reading of the whole sentence should have shown that a comparison here was
inappropriate. Question 30 proved to be very difficult as the expression ‘distance away’ was,
presumably, not known. It was pleasing to note that Question 23 ‘how (far)’ was particularly
well done. Other questions which candidates handled well were 17, 19, 20 and 21.

Part 3

‘Key’ Word Transformations

In 31, some candidates changed the prompt word to ‘frightened’; this, of course, lost them
their marks. In 32, a few candidates abbreviated ‘something’ to ‘sthg’; this is not acceptable.
A few candidates put a specific distance in their answer to 33; this was too precise to convey
the meaning of the initial sentence. A common error in 35 was to put the wrong tense, i.e. ‘I
have ever’. It was, perhaps, not too surprising to find word order problems in answers for
Question 37, many candidates writing ‘to have serviced your car’. Question 40 proved
difficult as many candidates put ‘of’ rather than ‘for’ after ‘reputation’. Numbers 35 and 40
were the most difficult questions in this part of the paper.

Part 4, The boat trip

Error Correction

This proved to be the most difficult part of the paper. The first question, number 41, was
answered correctly by only a very small proportion of the candidates. As this question
depends on reading the two example lines, one is led to believe that most candidates
basically ignored these two lines and began reading at the beginning of line 41. The
example lines are an integral part of the text and to ignore them is to risk losing marks, as
indeed happened with a very large number of candidates. The difficulty of line 41 was to
some extent balanced by the high number of candidates producing the correct answer in line
42. Many candidates gave wrong answers for lines 48 and 52. Line 48 was a long line and
one imagines that candidates reading too quickly simply failed to notice the incorrect ‘a’ and
decided that the line was correct. In line 52, it was assumed that ‘passing from’ was correct
and that ‘for’ or ‘about’ was incorrect; in fact, whilst ‘for’ and ‘about’ were not vital for the line
to make sense, they were in no way incorrect.

Part 5, How to package your mail

Word Formation

Most candidates coped well with this part. Question 59 caused the greatest number of
problems. The word ‘breakable’ did not seem to be widely known and many candidates
tended to assume that the most likely word to be formed from ‘break’ was ‘broken’, even
though the word does not really make any sense in the context.

•

RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION

It is important to decide in advance how much time you should spend on each part of the
paper. If you spend too long on any one part, you may find yourself rushing to complete the
later parts and, consequently, not doing them with sufficient care. Try to make sure that you
have enough time to check through your answers at the end. You may find that you have
omitted some answers that you found difficult; now is the time to fill in these missing
answers.

Be careful to make your handwriting clear. If words are not clearly written, they are likely to
be penalised. Letters with which you should be particularly careful are a, e and o.

Do not write the answers to examples on your mark sheet, as, if you do this, all of your actual
answers will be one place out of order and you will have no space for your final answer (or
for your final two answers in Part 4).

In Part 3, read the initial sentence carefully before deciding upon your answer. Your answer
must mean the same as the initial sentence. You must be careful to use the appropriate
tense. Look at the following example:

The price of the article included the postal charges.

FOR

The charges ……………. the price of the article.

As the initial sentence refers to the past, the answer must also refer to the past. Thus, ‘for
postage were included in’ is correct but ‘for postage are included in’ is wrong’.

In Part 5 be careful not to misalign answers, that is to say if, for example, the given word
appears at the end of the line with Question 57, the new form of that word must appear with
Question 57 of your answer sheet.

•

DOs and DON’Ts for FCE PAPER 3 USE OF ENGLISH

make your handwriting clear in all parts of the paper.

make sure that the meaning of your answer in Part 3 is the same as that of the
initial sentence.

remember that in Part 4 the majority of lines will contain an error.

write only one answer for any question on any part of the paper.

make sure that you spell all the words that you use correctly.

DON’T

choose your answers in any part before reading the whole of the passage.

DON’T

decide upon an answer without reading the surrounding sentences.

DON’T

write the answers to the examples on your answer sheet.

DON’T

change the prompt word in Part 3 in any way.

DON’T

spend so long on any one part of the paper that you do not have time to
complete later parts.

PAPER 4 - LISTENING

Part

Task Type and Focus

Number of
Questions

Task Format

Multiple-choice

Understanding gist, main
points, detail, function,
location, roles and
relationships, mood,
attitude, intention, feeling
or opinion

A series of short unrelated
extracts, of approximately 30
seconds each, from
monologues or exchanges
between interacting speakers.
The multiple-choice questions
have three options.

Note-taking or blank-filling

Understanding gist, main
points, detail or specific
information, or deducing
meaning

A monologue or text involving
interacting speakers and lasting
approximately 3 minutes.

Multiple-matching

As for Part 1

A series of short related
extracts, of approximately 30
seconds each, from
monologues or exchanges
between interacting speakers.
The multiple-matching
questions require selection of
the correct option from a list
of 6.

Selection from 2 or 3
possible answers

As for Part 2

A monologue or text involving
interacting speakers and lasting
approximately 3 minutes. The
questions require candidates to
select between 2 or 3 possible
answers, e.g., true/false;
yes/no; three-option multiple-
choice; which speaker said
what, etc.

•

Marking

Candidates write their answers on a separate answer sheet, which is marked according to a
detailed mark scheme and then scanned by computer.

Each question carries one mark. The total score is adjusted to give a mark out of 40.

For security reasons, more than one version of the Paper 4 Listening Test is made available
at each session. As with all other FCE papers, rigorous checks are built into the question
paper production process to ensure all versions of the test are of comparable content and
difficulty. In addition, for Paper 4, the marks are adjusted to ensure that there is no
advantage or disadvantage to candidates taking one particular version.

All texts and tasks were representative of what can be expected in future versions of the
Paper. In Part 4, three-way matching tasks as outlined in the FCE Specifications may
appear in future versions.

•

Candidate performance

Candidates did very well on all versions of the Paper; no one Part was significantly more
difficult than another.

NB The test being discussed is Test A. This is the one which is released in the Past Paper
Pack.

Part 1

Candidate performance on this part was generally very good, although in Test A two
questions, 4 and 8 were the most challenging. In Question 4, some candidates opted for B
rather than A. Candidates hear a man explaining that he is waiting for the police to clear the
road. ‘ … I can actually see it from here’, he says and goes on to say ‘Apparently it just
missed a lorry when it fell … ’. Candidates may have been distracted by the reference to
lorry (which also appears in option B and consequently did not understand that ‘it’ referred to
something falling near the lorry.

In Question 8, some candidates chose A instead of the key C. Initially the woman mentions
that she has ‘spent weeks looking at information on jobs available …’ and then goes on to
mention an advice centre which ‘helps you find the most suitable job’ by giving you a range
of activities. She knows what she’s ‘good at’ in terms of her own skills and she does not
need to go on more courses. What she appreciates is the fact that the advice centre ‘is a
wonderful opportunity to explore different options for jobs’, not the fact that it offers skills and
courses.

Part 2

Candidates had few problems with this part in Test A and performed very well. Question 12
proved slightly more difficult, not because candidates failed to understand what they had
heard, but in terms of recording their answer accurately.

The story in this play takes place in the

century.

The markscheme allowed for variations: ‘nineteenth’/’19

th’

/’XIXth’ but not ‘1900s’ or

‘nineteen’.

Question 16 was answered successfully by those candidates who performed well generally
and who clearly understood the slightly unusual reference to ‘the mouth that eats salt and
pepper’.

Part 3

Candidates found this part of the Paper more challenging but still coped well overall. Two
questions, 20 and 22 proved more difficult than the other three. In Question 20 many
candidates chose F rather than E. The speaker mentions that his father would arrive
unexpectedly to watch a football or a cricket match. He goes on to say ‘And the sad thing
was that I couldn’t really be with him, or talk to him for long – except in the half-time break, so
it didn’t really work, if you see what I mean’. Candidates were possibly attracted by the word
‘sad’ and the negative comment on the circumstances, so opted for F, whereas the focus of
what the speaker says is on the fact that his father ‘should’ve been busy doing other things in
the office.’

Question 22 was problematic for many candidates and the wrong answers ranged over A, D
and E indicating that candidates found it hard to focus on the key, F. The speaker talks

about how fame and money can affect family relationships: ‘it affects how you get on with
each other’ and concludes by saying: ‘I think, in a different situation, we would’ve got on very
well indeed together. As it was, we put up with each other – but only just!’ This clearly rules
out A, D and E, and F is the only possible answer: ‘Our relationship wasn’t a very happy
one.’

Part 4

Candidates coped well with this part of Test A which was marginally the most challenging
part of the Paper. The task was a 3-option multiple-choice and the questions which proved
most difficult were those towards the end of the task, especially Questions 28 and 29. For
Question 28 candidates hear the interviewer ask: ‘What about other things people ate?’
Terry’s reply mentions fruit and vegetables when they are in season, people who could afford
to eat a lot of meat and people who lived inland who did not eat sea fish. The inference
candidates are expected to draw indicates that the correct answer is C; people only had
access to what was available where they lived, and Terry does not say that people ate more
fruit and vegetables or that their diet consisted of mainly meat and fish. In Question 29,
many candidates overlooked the correct answer B; Terry refers to many actors being
vegetarian, so he has to ‘make up dishes that look like meat but are actually vegetarian.
This keeps the actors happy.’ He certainly mentions that food can begin to smell, but he
emphasises that he has to be creative in making a lot of meat dishes vegetarian and that is
‘very demanding’.

•

RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION

Part 1

Candidates should be aware that this part of the Paper is designed to enable them to settle
into the Listening Test in a relatively gentle way. Unlike elsewhere, they both hear and read
the questions and it is important that candidates realise that this support is intended to
remove some of the stress of doing a test in ‘real time’. However, this does not mean that
the questions are ‘easy’; candidates should attempt to concentrate as much as possible,
particularly since an option that may seem to be obviously correct on a superficial listening
may not in fact be correct. Additionally, teachers should give students plenty of practice in
dealing with the range of text types and focuses listed on page 19, so that candidates are
prepared for the pace and the change from question to question within Part 1.

Part 2

In preparing for this part of the test, candidates should be encouraged to establish the best
approach to recording the short answers which are the focus of this productive task.
Examiners make specific mention that some candidates’ handwriting is not sufficiently legible
to be easily read, and moreover that candidates do not always appear to take care that what
they write matches what comes before and, if relevant, after the gap. It is very unlikely that
any answer will need more than four words and more often than not gaps can be filled using
fewer than four words. Candidates who hedge their bets by, for example, writing a number
and then unnecessarily also writing it in words may well penalise themselves if the additional
material is incorrect.

Candidates are not expected to rephrase what they hear and should therefore focus on
writing down the key information as it is heard in the text. Minor spelling mistakes are
accepted if the meaning of the word is not changed, but the words and phrases tested are
limited to those which candidates can reasonably be expected to spell correctly.

Part 3

Candidates should be advised to make good use of the second listening, even if they have
answered every question on the first listening. They may discover that they need to change
more than one answer if they discover a mistake, because one correct answer may have a
knock-on effect on other questions.

Part 4

Candidates should be prepared to encounter any of the task types listed in the Specifications
on page 19, as any of them could appear in any version. They should know that with all the
task types, adequate time is given for them to read the questions before they hear the
recording. In the multiple-choice question task, candidates are given a full minute to read
through the questions. In addition they should realise that, although a particular option is
true according to what is said in the recording, it is not necessarily the correct answer to the
question that the candidate is being asked to focus on. For example, ‘What did he find
annoying about his journey?’ may be followed by more than one option describing something
that really did happen to a speaker, but only one option will be something that he found
‘annoying’.

With regard to the matching tasks, any of the following formats may be used:

•

choosing from three options, e.g., which of the three places/things does this statement

refer to?

•

choosing from one option, another option or both, e.g., which book mentions this: Book A,

Book B or Both of them?

•

choosing from one option, another option or neither option, e.g., which person is this true

of, Person A, Person B or Neither of them?

•

DOs AND DON'Ts for FCE PAPER 4 LISTENING

use the full time you are allowed before hearing each recording to carefully
read through all the questions so you are prepared for what you hear.

look carefully at what is printed before and after the gap in Part 2 and think
about the kind of information that you are listening for.

write your answers as clearly as possible in Part 2.

check that your idea of what the correct answer is when you first hear the
recording is confirmed when you hear it for the second time.

remember that any mistake you discover in Part 3 when hearing the recording
for a second time may affect your answers.

concentrate on understanding what speakers say, especially in Parts 1, 3
and 4, in as much depth as possible, rather than just being satisfied with
the surface meaning.

DON’T

rephrase what you hear in Part 2; write down the figure(s) or word(s) that you
hear spoken.

DON'T

complicate an answer in Part 2 by writing extra, irrelevant information.

DON'T

spend too much time on a question you are having difficulty with, as this may
make it harder to answer other questions.

DON’T

forget to make sure that you transfer your answers correctly to the answer
sheet.

PAPER 5 - SPEAKING

Part

Task Type and Focus

Length of Parts

Task Format

Short exchanges between
each candidate and the
interlocutor

3 minutes

The interlocutor encourages
the candidates to give
information about themselves.

Giving personal
information; socialising

Long turn from each
candidate, with a brief
response from the other
candidate

Exchanging personal and
factual information;
expressing attitudes and
opinions; employing
discourse functions related
to managing a long turn

4 minutes

The candidates are in turn
given visual prompts (two
colour photographs) which they
each talk about for
approximately 1 minute. They
are also asked to comment
briefly on each other’s
photographs.

Candidates talk with one
another

Exchanging information,
expressing attitudes and
opinions

3 minutes

The candidates are given visual
prompts (photographs, line
drawings, diagrams, etc.) which
generate discussion through
engagement in tasks such as
planning, problem solving,
decision making, prioritising,
speculating, etc.

Candidates talk with one
another and the
interlocutor

Exchanging and justifying
opinions

4 minutes

The interlocutor encourages a
discussion of matters related to
the theme of Part 3.

•

Marking

The Speaking tests are conducted by trained examiners, who attend biannual co-ordination
sessions to ensure that standards are maintained.

The Assessor awards marks to each candidate for performance throughout the test
according to the four Analytical Criteria (Grammar and Vocabulary, Discourse Management,
Pronunciation and Interactive Communication). The Interlocutor awards marks according to
the Global Achievement scale, which assesses the candidate’s overall effectiveness in
tackling the tasks. These scores are converted by computer to provide a mark out of 40.

•

Candidate performance

Candidate performance in this administration was consistent with that of June 2000 and
historical norms. Feedback from Oral Examiners has been very positive and students overall
were very well prepared for this paper. Feedback indicates that this year's test materials have
been well received. Students who performed less well were those who did not listen carefully
to the instructions given or those who dominated the interaction at the expense of their
partner. To perform well a candidate should answer the task set and therefore should not be

afraid to ask for repetition of instructions before embarking on the task. Candidates should be
made aware that asking for the instructions to be repeated will not affect their marks in any
way, whereas redirection by the examiner once the task has begun may affect their
performance.

Part 1

This part of the test gives the examiners their first impression of the candidates and it is
therefore important that the candidates speak about themselves and their lives with
appropriate detail. One word responses are inadequate and will affect the score for
Interactive Communication. Candidates should also be advised not to prepare long
responses to questions that they feel they may be asked as this often means that they do not
answer appropriately. This tactic does not lead to effective Interactive Communication, and
is easily noticed by examiners. Candidates who have not met prior to the test should not feel
concerned as feedback from examiners indicates that this does not affect performance and in
some cases leads to a more natural interaction in this part of the test.

Part 2

The tendency in this part of the test is for candidates to focus on the pictures without listening
carefully to the task set by the examiner. Simply comparing and contrasting the two pictures
is unlikely to provide the candidate with enough to talk about for a full minute. Candidates
will always be asked to compare/contrast 'and say ... (something specific about the
photographs)...'. They should be trained to listen very carefully for the 'and say ...' so that
they complete the task and are able to continue for the full minute. Candidates should not
feel concerned if the examiner interrupts as this simply means that they have completed the
task. It is important for candidates to start talking as soon as they can in order to make full
use of their long turn.

Comments on released Test Materials

Finding Out

Candidates were shown two photographs of children finding out about things in different
ways. The first photograph showed a father and his son looking at the night sky together,
pointing at the stars, and the second showed children in the classroom looking at countries
on a globe. (Candidates were not expected to know the word ‘globe’, but to be able to say
e.g. ‘The children are learning about different countries in the world’). Candidates were
asked to compare and contrast the photographs and say what they would find interesting
about each situation. Candidates whose responses were restricted to: ‘In this picture I can
see a father and son. They’re looking at the sky. In this picture the children are in class’, will
not have performed as well as those who went on to find further points of comparison e.g.
learning with the teacher/learning from your family, the importance of learning about the
world in the classroom/the value of learning about the world by going and seeing it for
yourself. Candidates should also have moved beyond the pictures themselves to discuss
how interesting they find learning about different countries, why they are interested, and how
much they would enjoy e.g. the experience of being out at night in the countryside with the
family. In this way candidates will not run out of things to say and will make full use of their
long turn.

Picnics

Candidates were given two photographs showing people having picnics in different places.
The first showed a family on the beach with a car in the background and the second showed
a different family on a picnic out in the countryside surrounded by flowers. Candidates were
asked to compare and contrast the photographs and say why they thought people enjoyed
eating outside. Candidates were expected to compare the beach scene with the countryside
scene and say how much they thought the people were enjoying each situation, how they
had got there (e.g. car journey/walk in the countryside), the comfort of each situation (sitting
on the ground/round a table). They should then have moved on to talk about why people
enjoy eating outside, whether it is worth the necessary preparations, the advantages and
disadvantages of picnics, whether they would prefer to picnic in the countryside or at the
beach and so on.

Part 3

The aim of this part of the test is for candidates to discuss the task outlined by the examiner
as fully as possible, and to work towards a negotiated outcome in the time available. In this
part of the test candidates are always invited to do two things. They are required to respond
to and give their views on a range of visual prompts, then to come to a negotiated decision.
The wording of the rubric is:
'First talk to each other about......... . Then decide......................’.
Candidates, presented with the visual stimulus, sometimes fail to hear the first part of the
instructions which is in fact the bulk of the task. Candidates who performed less well were
therefore those who made their decisions very early on in the interaction without first
considering and discussing as fully as possible the range of suggestions presented to them
and, as a result, ran out of things to say. Candidates should be trained to listen carefully for
the words 'First talk to each other about.....' and to internalise the task set. As already
mentioned in the section on candidate performance, candidates should be made aware that
they will not lose marks if they need to ask the examiner to repeat the rubric.

To perform well in this part of the test, candidates should be able to take a full and active part
in the interaction, making use of the range of visual stimulus available, expressing their own
views clearly, listening to their partner and developing their partner's comments. However,
candidates should be aware of the importance of inviting their partner to respond, ensuring
that both candidates take an equal part in the development of the interaction. Candidates
are expected to negotiate an outcome and should not be concerned if they do not agree.
Disagreeing in a friendly way can be an effective part of Interactive Communication.
However, strong disagreement can undermine their partner's confidence and an overbearing
candidate may lose marks. Candidates should make full use of the time available, starting
promptly and finishing only when the examiner interjects. They should not feel concerned if
they are asked to stop as this will probably mean that they have talked for the allotted time.

Comments on released Test Materials

The Photo

Candidates were asked to imagine that they wanted to give an elderly friend a photograph
frame as a present. They were then shown eight photographs representing different times in
her life, together with a picture of the empty frame. Some of the photographs were black and
white to indicate the age of the photograph. The photographs showed:

•

the elderly lady as a child playing with her sister

•

her wedding day

•

with her own young child

•

her

home

•

with her husband

•

with

her

grandchildren

•

on a holiday

•

an up to date photograph of the lady herself.

Candidates were asked to talk to each other about why each photograph might be important
to her and then decide which photograph she would choose to put into the frame.
Candidates are often tempted to start with the words ‘I think she would choose the photo of
her wedding day because ...’. Candidates who did this often performed less well because
they came to their final decision without having fully explored the alternatives. Candidates
should not feel concerned if they are unable to make use of the full range of visual prompts
but they should have managed to discuss several photographs before making their decision.
Candidates should therefore be trained to discuss the different ideas offered as fully as
possible in the available time and come to a negotiated decision towards the end of their
three minutes, rather than making a decision at the outset and running out of things to say. In
this case candidates needed to explore the reasons why the different photographs were
important to the lady e.g. how important one big day in her life would be compared to
remembering the time when she was a child or the pleasure she would get looking at a
picture of her grandchildren, whether it was likely that she would want a picture of her home
in the frame and so on. Candidates were then expected to try to agree on a photograph for
the frame but were not penalised if they ran out of time.

Part 4

In this part of the test candidates are given a further opportunity to demonstrate their
language ability by engaging in a discussion with the examiner and their partner. It is
therefore vital that candidates offer more than a minimal response and take the opportunity to
initiate discussion as well as answer the examiner's questions. Candidates who performed
well in this part of the test were those able to develop and illustrate the topic, demonstrating a
range of vocabulary. Candidates generally performed confidently in this part of the test and
were often so enthusiastic that it became necessary for examiners to draw the Speaking Test
to a close!

Comments on released Test Materials

Following the discussion of the photographs (see Part 3), candidates were asked why they
thought people liked collecting photographs, whether they liked having their photograph
taken and how easy it is to take really good photographs. The discussion then became more
general and candidates were asked what other things help us to remember the past and how
interested they were in learning about the past. Finally they were asked what they thought
people would remember most about the twentieth century. Candidates who performed well
were those who responded fully to the questions asked.

•

RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION

Candidates are expected to take a full and active part in the test. It is important, therefore,
that candidates seek as many opportunities to practise their spoken English as possible,
inside and outside the classroom. 'Exam training' can help with nervousness and candidates
certainly benefit from being familiar with the different parts of the test, but this is no substitute
for a genuine interest in the language. Candidates who put themselves in a position where
they need to use English on a regular basis are likely to perform well.

Part 1

For this part of the test candidates will benefit from finding opportunities to practise talking
about themselves, their likes and dislikes, personal/educational history, present
circumstances, plans and hopes for the future etc.

Part 2

Candidates can improve their performance in this part of the test by choosing pairs of
thematically linked photographs, practising comparing and contrasting them, and going on to
talk about the theme in a more general way. Candidates should time themselves to check
that they are able to keep going for a full minute. Without practice, candidates may find it
difficult to speak for a full minute in the test.

Part 3

The best preparation for this part of the test is for candidates to practise taking part in
discussions in small groups so that all candidates have the opportunity to take the floor.
Candidates with a quieter disposition should be encouraged to develop strategies to ensure
they are able to take their turn. Stronger candidates should be encouraged to invite opinions
from others. Suitable thematic areas for discussion can be found in FCE coursebooks and
should relate to the candidate's own experience rather than more abstract concepts. (See
the FCE Handbook for a list of topic areas.)

Part 4

As in Part 3, candidates will benefit from being given as many opportunities as possible to
give their opinions on a range of issues, and to expand on their views while inviting opinions
from others and responding to them.

•

DOs and DON'Ts FOR PAPER 5 SPEAKING

familiarize yourself with the focus, function and procedures of all parts of the
test.

take every opportunity to practise your English in groups and pairs and outside
the classroom before the test.

listen carefully to instructions given and questions asked throughout the test
and focus your answers appropriately.

respond to your partner's contributions and invite your partner to contribute in
Parts 3 and 4.

speak clearly so that both the assessor and the interlocutor can hear you.

make use of opportunities to speak in all parts of the test and give extended
contributions where you can.

ask for repetition of instructions if you are unclear about what you should do.

make sure that you answer the additional question in Part 2, as well as
comparing and contrasting the photographs.

be prepared to initiate discussion as well as responding to what your partner
has said.

DON'T

prepare long responses in advance. You are unlikely to answer questions
appropriately.

DON'T

try to give your views during your partner's long turn.

DON'T

try to dominate your partner or to interrupt him or her in an abrupt way.

DON'T

allow frequent pauses and hesitations during the interaction or during your
own turn. Make full use of the time available.

DON'T

worry if you disagree with your partner in Parts 3 and 4. As long as you are
not overbearing this is all part of interactive communication.

DON'T

worry about being interrupted by the examiner. For administrative reasons it
is important that tests do not overrun.

FCE Examination Report December 2000 - 0100 and 0102

We are interested in hearing your views on how useful this report has been.

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Officer, Local Secretary, etc.)

Have you prepared candidates for FCE?

YES/NO

Do you plan to prepare candidates for FCE in the future?

YES/NO

How have you used this report? (e.g. to provide feedback to other teachers, for
examination practice, etc.)

Which parts of this report did you find most useful?

Which parts are not so useful?

What extra information would you like to see included in this report?

Your name (optional) .........................................................................

Centre/School ...................................................................................

Thank you.

Document Outline

FCE Examination Report Syllabuses 0100 & 0102 Dec 2000
INTRODUCTION
Grading
Awards
Notification of Results
PAPER 1 - READING
PAPER 2 - WRITING
PAPER 3 - USE OF ENGLISH
PAPER 5 - SPEAKING
Your Comments

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