© UCLES 2001 0101

First Certificate in English

Examination Report

Syllabus 0101

December 2000

CONTENTS

Page

Introduction

1

Paper 1 - Reading

3

Paper 2 - Writing

6

Paper 3 - Use of English

11

Paper 4 - Listening

15

Paper 5 - Speaking

20

Feedback Form

26

© UCLES 2001 0101

1

INTRODUCTION

The First Certificate in English examination appeared in its revised format for the first time in
December 1996.

This Report is intended to provide a general view of how candidates performed on each
paper and to offer guidance on the preparation of candidates.

The overall pass rate for Syllabus 0101 was 50.18%

The following table gives details of the percentage of candidates at each grade.

0101

GRADE

PERCENTAGE

A

0

3.09

B

10.36

C

36.73

D

0

9.46

E

40.36

•

Grading

Grading took place during January 2000 (approximately six weeks after the examination).

The five FCE papers total 200 marks, after weighting. Papers 1–5 are each weighted to 40
marks. The candidate’s overall FCE grade is based on the total score gained by the
candidate in all five papers. Candidates do not ‘pass’ or ‘fail’ in a particular paper, but rather
in the examination as a whole.

The overall grades (A, B, C, D and E) are set according to the following information:

•

statistics on the candidature;

•

statistics on the overall candidate performance;

•

statistics on individual items, for those parts of the examination for which this is
appropriate (Papers 1, 3 and 4);

•

the advice of the Principal Examiners, based on the performance of candidates, and on
the recommendation of examiners where this is relevant (Papers 2 and 5);

•

comparison with statistics from previous years' examination performance and
candidature.

Results are reported as three passing grades (A, B and C) and two failing grades (D and E).
The minimum successful performance which a candidate typically requires in order to
achieve a grade C corresponds to about 60% of the total marks. Every candidate is provided
with a Statement of Results which includes a graphical display of the candidate’s
performance in each component. These are shown against the scale Exceptional – Good –
Borderline – Weak and indicate the candidate’s relative performance in each paper.

•

Awards

The Awarding Committee meets after the grade boundaries have been confirmed. It deals
with all cases for special consideration, e.g., temporary disability, unsatisfactory examination
conditions, suspected collusion, etc. The committee can ask for scripts to be re-marked,
check results, change grades, withhold results, etc. Results may be withheld because of
infringement of the regulations or because further investigation is needed. Schools are
notified if a candidate’s result has been scrutinised by the Awarding Committee.

© UCLES 2001 0101

2

•

Notification of Results

Candidates’ statements of results are issued through their local centre approximately two
months after the examination has been taken. Certificates are issued about six weeks after
the issue of statements of results. Requests for a check on results may be made through the
local centre within one month of the issue of statements of results.

UCLES produces the following documents which may be of use in preparing candidates for
FCE:

•

Regulations (produced annually, for information on dates, etc.);

•

FCE Handbook (for detailed information on the examination and sample materials);

•

Examination Report (produced after each administration);

•

Past Paper Pack (available approximately ten weeks after each examination session,
including Question Papers for Papers 1

`4, sample Speaking Test materials, answer

keys, cassette and tapescript for Paper 4, and Paper 2 mark schemes and sample
scripts).

Users of this Examination Report may find it useful to refer simultaneously to the
relevant Past Paper Pack. This, together with further copies of this report, is available from
the centre through which candidates entered, or from

EFL Information

University of Cambridge Local Examination Syndicate

1 Hills Road

Cambridge

CB1 2EU

UK

Tel:

[phone]

Fax:

[phone]

email

[e-mail]

www.cambridge-efl.org.uk

Feedback on this Report is very welcome and should be sent to the Reports Co-ordinator,

EFL, at UCLES. Please use the feedback form at the end of this report.

© UCLES 2001 0101

3

PAPER 1 - READING

•

Marking

Candidates record their answers on a separate answer sheet, which is scanned by computer.
Questions in Parts 1, 2 and 3 carry two marks each. Questions in Part 4 carry one mark
each. The total score is adjusted to give a mark out of 40.

•

Candidate performance

In general, candidates coped reasonably with the task formats of the paper. Statistics
showed that the questions in all four parts provided a very reliable assessment of candidates'
relative ability levels.

Part

Task Type and Focus

Number of
Questions
Syllabus 0101

Task Format

1

Multiple-matching

Main focus: main points

7

A text preceded by multiple-
matching questions.

Candidates must match a
prompt from one list to a
prompt in another list, or match
prompts to elements in the text.

2

Multiple-choice

Main focus: detail

8

A text followed by four-option
multiple-choice questions.

3

Gapped text

Main focus: text structure

6

A text from which paragraphs
or sentences have been
removed and placed in jumbled
order after the text. Candidates
must decide from where in the
text the paragraphs or
sentences have been removed.

4

Multiple-matching,
multiple-choice

Main focus: specific
information

14

As Part 1

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4

Part 1, Firework displays to remember

This headings task, focusing on the understanding of the main points in the text, presented
more difficulty than usual for this task type. Question 3 was the easiest, while 1 and 2 were
the most difficult. Good candidates coped reasonably well with these two questions, and
incorrect responses were evenly spread amongst the distractors.

Part 2, The new secretary

This four-option multiple-choice task focused mainly on candidates’ detailed comprehension
and included a reference question. Candidates found it to be the easiest part of the paper on
this occasion. Questions 8, 9 and 15 were generally very well handled, while 11 and 12 were
particularly difficult for weaker candidates. Good candidates had few problems with either
question, and incorrect responses were widely spread.

Part 3, A big hand

This gapped-sentence task, focusing on text structure, proved to be the most difficult part of
the paper, as is frequently the case. Questions 20 and 21 were the most difficult, but the
general level of performance was rather low, with good candidates also experiencing some
difficulty with these final questions.

Part 4, Could you write a best seller?

This multiple-matching task focused on candidates' ability to retrieve specific information from
the text. Candidates performed considerably better on this part than on Parts 1 and 3. As in
the last administration, very few candidates failed to complete all 35 questions, and this is an
encouraging trend. Question 29 was the easiest question, while questions 23 and 27 proved
especially problematic for the weaker group. In 23, there is no mention in B, the most
popular incorrect response, of what proportion of a manuscript should be sent to a publisher.
In 27, it is possible that misinterpretation of the unfamiliar word ‘budding’ in B distracted the
candidates’ attention from the more accessible sentence ‘You need talent, a good publisher
and lots of luck’ in D.

•

RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION

Teachers and students should note that no single FCE 1 paper includes all possible tasks or
question types. The FCE Handbook lists all the task types which may appear on the paper.

In addition to specific examination practice, students should be advised to read as widely as
they can, with a range of reading purposes reflecting those sampled in the paper (retrieving
relevant information, getting the 'gist', understanding detail, etc.). Many of the texts for the
Reading Paper are drawn from magazines and newspapers, rather than books, and students
will benefit from being familiar with these types of text.

Specific work on the identification, location and presentation of main ideas would benefit
candidates in Parts 1 and 3.

Focusing on the sequence of tenses in running text and extended noun/pronoun sequences
would also be beneficial, particularly in Part 3 (see Dos and Don’ts).

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•

DOs AND DON’Ts for FCE PAPER 1 READING

DO

consider possible alternative meanings of headings in Part 1 before attempting
to match them to the text. Look out for figurative language in headings.

DO

avoid being attracted solely by the presence in the text of a word used in the
question ('word-spotting') (all parts). The mere presence of the word is no
guarantee that it is the correct answer.

DO

spend as much time as is feasible familiarising yourself with the base text, and
the content of the extracts before attempting to choose any answers in Part 3.

DO

attempt to predict what is missing in the gaps in Part 3 by looking carefully at
the text before and after each gap. Read through the relevant parts of the
text with your chosen answers in place to check that everything flows
naturally.

DO

pay careful attention to pronouns at the beginning and/or end of extracted
sentences or paragraphs in Part 3. Where appropriate, they must refer
correctly to the nouns which precede and/or follow the gap in the text which
you are considering.

DO

constantly review your choices in Parts 1 and 3. As you work through the
task, difficulty in finding a particular answer may indicate that you have already
used the correct answer for an earlier question. Always be prepared to go
back.

DO

spend plenty of time reading English, both fiction and non-fiction. There is no
need to look up everything you don't know in every piece you look at: just
reading for fun will get you used to the rhythms of the language and help to
increase your reading speed, leaving more time to focus on the examination
tasks and review your answers.

DON'T

ignore similar information in other sections of the text, when you decide on an
answer in Parts 1 and 4. There are usually some similarities between
sections, and you need to make sure that your choice matches the question
you are asked.

DON'T

forget that, if a Part 2 multiple-choice question is an incomplete sentence, the
whole sentence must match the text, not just the phrase presented as A, B, C
or D. The information in these options may be true in itself, but not work with
the sentence beginning you are given.

DON'T

choose your answers too quickly in Part 3. Look at the whole task (i.e., all the
extracts), once you have a good idea of the base text. Fill what you think are
the easy gaps first and deal with the problem areas last.

DON'T

ignore the need in Part 3 to connect introductory adverbs or phrases with the
ideas which go before the gap you are working on (e.g. ‘However’ must be
preceded by a contrasting idea. 'Another mistake we made ... ' must be
preceded by a previous mistake etc.).

DON'T

ignore the need in Part 3 for the tenses in the extract to fit logically with those
already present in the base text.

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PAPER 2 - WRITING

Part

Task Type and Focus

Number of Tasks
and Length

Task Format

1

Q. 1

Writing a transactional
letter (formal/informal)

1 compulsory task

120 – 180 words

Candidates are required to deal
with input material of up to 250
words, which may include
graphic and pictorial material.
Texts may include
advertisements, letters,
postcards, diaries, short
articles, etc.

2

Q. 2

`4

Writing one of the
following:

•

an

article

•

a

non-transactional

letter

•

a

report

•

a

discursive

composition

•

a

descriptive/narrative

composition/short story

4 tasks from which
the candidates
choose 1

120 – 180 words

A situationally-based writing
task specified in no more than
70 words.

Q. 5

Writing one of the above
on a prescribed
background reading text

Q. 5 has two
options

•

Marking

All scripts are marked by experienced examiners, who must attend a training and
standardisation day before they commence any marking. Examiners award marks according
to a General Mark Scheme, which has detailed Performance Bands from 0

`5, where Band 3

describes a ‘satisfactory’ level. Within the bands, examiners place the script more exactly at
bottom, mid or top of the band range, e.g., 3·1, 3·2, 3·3. These scores are converted to
provide a mark out of 20 for each piece of writing.

Examiners also use a Task Specific Mark Scheme for each question. This describes
satisfactory Band 3 performance and covers content, organisation, range, register and
format, and effect on target reader. Examples of the mark schemes are included in the FCE
Past Paper Packs.

Examiners work in small teams and are monitored and advised by Team Leaders, who in
turn are monitored by the Principal Examiner.

© UCLES 2001 0101

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•

Candidate performance

Part 1, Question 1

All candidates answered this compulsory question, a letter of complaint about a pen and
pencil set ordered by the candidate as a gift for a friend. Candidates had to include five
points, using the notes provided (see the task-specific mark scheme). The question proved
relatively straightforward and most candidates managed to cover all the points. There were a
few exceptionally good answers.

The point ‘wrong spelling’ caused many candidates difficulties in terms of expressing the idea
in accurate language, and they produced errors such as: ‘had wrong spelling’, ‘was wrong
spelling’. Candidates are usually required to manipulate the notes given on the question
paper. In this particular case, only a minority of better candidates were able to produce
language such as ‘there was a spelling mistake or the name was spelt incorrectly’.

The request for a refund was generally handled well, although some candidates used
language that had obviously been learned for this purpose but which did not work in the
context of the question, for example ‘I demand a partial refund’.

Weaker candidates were often unable to sustain a polite tone, using language which became
inappropriately threatening at the end of their letters. This would have a negative effect on
the target reader.

Part 2

There was a fairly even take-up of Questions 2, 3 and 4. Nearly 34% of candidates chose
Question 2, the composition on fashion. Question 3, the article about clubs after school, was
chosen by around 29% of candidates, while Question 4, the report, was answered by 32% of
candidates. Regarding Question 5, the set text question, only 0.1% chose Question 5a, the
composition, whereas a disproportionately large number of candidates (over 3%) chose
Question 5b, because it asked for an informal letter.

Question 2

This question was generally answered satisfactorily, although weaker answers were rather
repetitive and relied inappropriately on the wording given in the question. Most candidates
were able to organise their compositions adequately, though even strong candidates used a
fairly limited range of linking devices.

Question 3

Though most candidates probably do not have experience of after-school clubs, they found
the concept accessible and had plenty to say about the idea. Better candidates gave some
convincing reasons for starting the clubs chosen, displaying some range of language.
Average candidates managed to produce adequate answers, though without much
expansion.

Many candidates appeared to have problems in writing articles, and often produced letters to
the magazine, or even compositions.

© UCLES 2001 0101

8

Question 4

This question had the highest average mark of the whole paper, though was tackled with
varying degrees of success. Although the question paper highlighted the fact that the report
should focus on a ‘one-day’ sightseeing tour, many candidates chose to disregard this and
wrote in general terms, giving very few concrete suggestions of what to do. Better candidates
laid out their answers in report format and addressed the time aspect.

Questions 5a and 5b

Question 5a was answered satisfactorily by the very few candidates who attempted it.
Question 5b was often chosen for the wrong reason and there were few good answers. A
large number of candidates wrote informal letters that made no mention of a set book; some
failed to write about any book at all. It has been pointed out in previous examination reports
that Question 5 answers which do not relate to one of the five set books receive no marks.

Many of those candidates who did refer to a set book did so rather minimally, particularly with
regard to the Agatha Christie collection of short stories. However, there were a few
ambitious answers that dealt with the task well.

© UCLES 2001 0101

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•

RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION

In general, the continuing message has to be for candidates to read each question carefully
and carry out the task required. Information about the target reader and the reason for writing
is given in each question to help the candidate, and this should be borne in mind during
classroom preparation. Working with past papers in pairs or groups, where students spend
time identifying the reader, the text type, and the important content points, is all useful
planning.

It is often very instructive for students to work on a second draft of a homework answer. In
this way, the teacher, or fellow students, can make useful suggestions regarding
organisation, language, and content omissions. The second draft can then be compared to
the first, which is not only instructive regarding weaknesses, but also builds confidence.

Part 1

Students should be encouraged to make a plan that includes all the content points, and
should then think carefully about what they can say on each one. Here too, paired discussion
can often lead to more ideas for expansion.

It is important for students to be made aware of the differences between formal and informal
register, and then to use one or the other consistently, as appropriate. Often of similar
importance is the choice of a suitably polite tone. It is important for students to be made more
aware of this aspect of Question 1, perhaps by spending time discussing what is and is not
appropriate. A successful way to deal with this is to give students examples of highly
inappropriate language, for example aggressive or threatening complaints, and to ask them
to suggest improvements.

Candidates often score lower marks because they haven’t organised their writing well.
Spending time on paragraphing and encouraging the command of a greater variety of linkers
is recommended.

Part 2

For any composition, students should ideally brainstorm their ideas in class, as often they
need to think through an argument, or review what language they need in order to express
their opinions. Planning before writing the answer is also important, to avoid repetition and to
ensure that the argument is presented in the most logical way.

A lot of work can be done in class to raise awareness of how articles are written. Textbooks
usually contain a number of real articles and their presentation can be examined as a starting
point for writing, for example the relationship between the title and opening paragraph, the
devices used to engage the reader, the register used.

Work can be done in class on report layout, with some consideration of organising devices
such as headings. For example, students could be given an unparagraphed piece of text,
where all the necessary information is included, though not in a logical order. Students
would then have to impose a report layout on the piece, and re-order the information into
meaningful sections.

There are many ways to incorporate a set text into classroom work, and parts of it can be
assigned for homework. Students will benefit from reading on their own, both in terms of new
vocabulary and the reinforcement of structures already learnt. Early examination in class of
past papers will allow students to practise questions regularly, in relation to different parts of
the book.

© UCLES 2001 0101

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•

DOs and DON'Ts for FCE PAPER 2 WRITING

DO

read the question thoroughly and underline important parts.

DO

make a plan for each answer.

DO

write in paragraphs, whenever appropriate.

DO

use a range of vocabulary, even if you are unsure of the correct spelling.

DO

check past tense endings, plural forms, and word order in sentences.

DO

write clearly, so that the examiner can read your answer.

DO

use the extra blank pages at the back of the booklet if necessary.

DON’T

mix formal and informal language.

DON’T

mis-spell words which appear on the question paper.

DON’T

waste time writing addresses for a letter, as they are not required.

DON’T

answer Question 5 if you haven’t read one of the books.

DON’T

worry if you run slightly over the 180-word limit.

© UCLES 2001 0101

11

PAPER 3 – USE OF ENGLISH

Part

Task Type and Focus

Number of

Questions

Task Format

1

Multiple-choice cloze

Focus: Vocabulary

15

A modified cloze text containing
15 gaps and followed by 15
four-option multiple-choice
questions.

2

Open cloze

Focus: Grammar and
vocabulary

15

A modified cloze text containing
15 gaps.

3

‘Key’ word transformations

Focus: Grammar and
vocabulary

10

Discrete questions with a lead-
in sentence and a gapped
response to complete using a
given word.

4

Error correction

Focus: Grammar

15

A text containing errors. Some
lines of the text are correct,
other lines contain an extra and
unnecessary word which must
be identified.

5

Word formation

Focus: Vocabulary

10

A text containing 10 gaps. Each
gap corresponds to a word.
The ‘stems’ of the missing
words are given beside the text
and must be transformed to
provide the missing word.

•

Marking

Candidates write their answers on a separate answer sheet, which is marked according to a
mark scheme and then scanned by computer.

Questions 1

`30 and 41`65 carry one mark each. Questions 31`40 are marked on a scale

0

`1`2. The total score is adjusted to give a mark out of 40.

© UCLES 2001 0101

12

•

Candidate performance

Part 1, The roof of the world

Multiple-choice Cloze

Candidates found this part of the paper to be difficult. Towards the end of the part
candidates had problems with expressions connected with mountains; in Question 8, a very
common choice was ‘line’ (D) rather than (mountain ) ‘range’, whilst in 10, only the most able
candidates realised that a mountain range ‘stretches’, the vast majority thinking the
appropriate word to be ‘grows’. In 13, the most popular choice was ‘point’ (D). In 15, the
weaker candidates were drawn to ‘reached’ (C), presumably because they failed to see the
significance of ‘to’ in the text.

Part 2, Kite-flying

Open Cloze

This part was even more difficult for the candidates than Part 1. Question 17 was the only one
which proved to be extremely easy for candidates. Questions 18, 19, 20, 22, 24, 25 and 26
caused problems for all but the most able candidates. It would seem that in Question 20
candidates felt that, despite the comma, the sentence was complete after ‘opportunity’ and that
‘while still’ was the beginning of a new sentence. Question 25 was the most difficult in the whole
paper, the most popular answer being ‘about’ as candidates seemed not to realise that ‘and one
hundred competition kites’ meant that the missing word would have to be ‘between’. Candidates
had difficulties in choosing appropriate prepositions in 22 and 26.

Part 3

‘Key’ Word Transformations

In Question 33, many candidates failed to realise that the presence of the past tense in the
initial sentence required that a past tense (not a present tense) be used in the answer. In 35,
the main problem for candidates was knowing how to follow ‘avoid’, e.g. ‘her being blamed’,
‘blaming herself’. In 37, many candidates failed to use the appropriate preposition after
‘complaining’. In 38, handling a third conditional and changing ‘borrowed’ into ‘lent’ or
‘loaned’ proved to be too difficult for many candidates. Question 39 was very difficult as
again candidates could not decide upon the correct preposition to follow ‘dressed’ and also
failed to change ‘so’ into ‘such’. In both 33 and 34 a number of candidates failed to spell the
prompt words (‘except’ and ‘until’) correctly in their answers.

Part 4, Arranging a visit

Error Correction

This section was done reasonably well, although even here it was difficult in some lines for
many candidates to spot the incorrect word. The greatest number of problems occurred in
the final line where it was commonly thought that the expression ‘Make yourself at your
home’ was correct. In line 45, ‘just’ was considered to be an error. In this line ‘just’ was not
vital to the meaning of the sentence but its use was by no means incorrect. In line 53, it was
thought to be correct to place ‘at’ when expressing a distance away from a place. The errors
in lines 42 and 46 were correctly identified by most candidates.

Part 5, Preparing for a speech

Word Formation

This was the section of the paper which candidates found to be the most straightforward.
The vast majority of candidates produced ‘nervous’ from ‘nerve’ for question 57 and almost

© UCLES 2001 0101

13

as many were successful in producing ‘easily’ from ‘easy’ for Question 58. The two
questions causing difficulty here were 63 and 65. In 63, it would appear that ‘tendency’ was
not known, whilst in 65 a large number of candidates fell into the trap of not reading the
whole sentence and assumed that the word required would be ‘helpful’ when, in fact, the
sentence required ‘unhelpful’.

•

RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION

It is important to decide in advance how much time you should spend on each part of the
paper. If you spend too long on any one part, you may find yourself rushing to complete the
later parts and, consequently, not doing them with sufficient care. Try to make sure that you
have enough time to check through your answers at the end. You may find that you have
omitted some answers that you found difficult; now is the time to fill in these missing
answers.

Be careful to make your handwriting clear. If words are not clearly written, they are likely to
be penalised. Letters with which you should be particularly careful are a, e and o.

Do not write the answers to examples on your mark sheet, as, if you do this, all of your actual
answers will be one place out of order and you will have no space for your final answer (or
for your final two answers in Part 4).

In Part 3, read the initial sentence carefully before deciding upon your answer. Your answer
must mean the same as the initial sentence. You must be careful to use the appropriate
tense. Look at the following example:

The price of the article included the postal charges.

FOR

The charges ……………. the price of the article.

As the initial sentence refers to the past, the answer must also refer to the past. Thus, ‘for
postage were included in’ is correct but ‘for postage are included in’ is wrong’.

In Part 5 be careful not to misalign answers, that is to say if, for example, the given word
appears at the end of the line with Question 57, the new form of that word must appear at
number 57 of your answer sheet.

© UCLES 2001 0101

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•

DOs and DON’Ts for FCE PAPER 3 USE OF ENGLISH

DO

make your handwriting clear in all parts of the paper.

DO

make sure that the meaning of your answer in Part 3 is the same as that of the
initial sentence.

DO

remember that in Part 4 the majority of lines will contain an error.

DO

write only one answer for any question on any part of the paper.

DO

make sure that you spell all the words that you use correctly.

DON’T

choose your answers in any part before reading the whole of the passage.

DON’T

decide upon an answer without reading the surrounding sentences.

DON’T

write the answers to the examples on your answer sheet.

DON’T

change the prompt word in Part 3 in any way.

DON’T

spend so long on any part of the paper that you do not have time to complete

later parts.

© UCLES 2001 0101

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PAPER 4 - LISTENING

Part

Task Type and Focus

Number of

Questions

Task Format

1

Multiple-choice

Understanding gist, main
points, detail, function,
location, roles and
relationships, mood,
attitude, intention, feeling
or opinion

8

A series of short unrelated
extracts, of approximately 30
seconds each, from
monologues or exchanges
between interacting speakers.
The multiple-choice questions
have three options.

2

Note-taking or blank-filling

Understanding gist, main
points, detail or specific
information, or deducing
meaning

10

A monologue or text involving
interacting speakers and lasting
approximately 3 minutes.

3

Multiple-matching

As for Part 1

5

A series of short related
extracts, of approximately 30
seconds each, from
monologues or exchanges
between interacting speakers.
The multiple-matching
questions require selection of
the correct option from a list of
6.

4

Selection from 2 or 3
possible answers

As for Part 2

7

A monologue or text involving
interacting speakers and lasting
approximately 3 minutes. The
questions require candidates to
select between 2 or 3 possible
answers, e.g., true/false;
yes/no; three-option multiple-
choice; which speaker said
what, etc.

•

Marking

Candidates write their answers on a separate answer sheet, which is marked according to a
detailed mark scheme and then scanned by computer.

Each question carries one mark. The total score is adjusted to give a mark out of 40.

For security reasons, more than one version of the Paper 4 Listening Test is made available
at each session. As with all other FCE papers, rigorous checks are built into the question
paper production process to ensure all versions of the test are of comparable content and
difficulty. In addition, for Paper 4, the marks are adjusted to ensure that there is no
advantage or disadvantage to candidates taking one particular version.

All texts and tasks were representative of what can be expected in future versions of the
Paper. In Part 4, three-way matching tasks as outlined in the FCE Specifications may
appear in future versions.

© UCLES 2001 0101

16

•

Candidate performance

Candidates did reasonably well overall on both versions of the Paper but found Parts 3 and 4
more challenging than Parts 1 and 2.

NB The test being discussed is Test A. This is the one which is released in the Past Paper
Pack.

Part 1

Candidate performance on this part overall was satisfactory, although in Test A two
questions, 4 and 8, were the most challenging. In Question 4, some candidates opted for B
rather than A. Candidates hear a man explaining that he is waiting for the police to clear the
road. ‘… I can actually see it from here’ he says and goes on to say ‘Apparently it just
missed a lorry when it fell …’. Candidates may have been distracted by the reference to
‘lorry’ (which also appears in option B) and consequently did not understand that ‘it’ referred
to something falling near the lorry. In Question 8, some candidates chose A instead of the
key C. Initially the woman mentions that she has ‘spent weeks looking at information on jobs
available …’ and then she goes on to mention an advice centre which ‘helps you find the
most suitable job’ by giving you a range of activities. She knows what she’s ‘good at’ in
terms of her own skills and she does not need to go on more courses. What she appreciates
is the fact that the advice centre ‘is a wonderful opportunity to explore different options for
jobs’, not the fact that it offers skills and courses.

Part 2

Candidates coped well with this part in Test A, although Question 16 proved significantly
more difficult. The reference in Question 16 is unexpected, and although the vocabulary is
straightforward, the collocation in this context is unusual. The interviewer asks the writer: ‘‘Is
this old man the one that’s called ‘the mouth that eats salt and pepper’ in the list of
characters?’’ The writer replies: ‘‘That’s right. The name comes from an old African
expression. Everyone eats salt and pepper, so it means the ‘voice of the people’. ’’ Few
candidates gave the correct answer ‘salt and pepper’.

Part 3

Candidates found this part of the Paper the most challenging and with the exception of
Question 19, all the questions proved quite difficult. In Question 20, many candidates chose
F rather than E. The speaker mentions that his father would arrive unexpectedly to watch a
football or a cricket match. He goes on to say ‘And the sad thing was that I couldn’t really be
with him, or talk to him for long – except in the half-time break, so it didn’t really work, if you
see what I mean’. Candidates were possibly attracted by the mention of ‘sad’ and the
negative comment on the circumstances, so opted for F, whereas the focus of what the
speaker says is on the fact that his father ‘should’ve been busy doing other things in the
office.’

In Question 21, candidates hear the speaker say part way through her comments that
despite everything ‘we got on really well together’. Towards the end, however, she mentions
that perhaps she ‘should’ve tried harder to move away from him and be more independent,
or perhaps just take no notice of the fact that I was who I was.’ Candidates who chose B or
F, as opposed to key D, overlooked the main point of what the speaker said.

Question 22 was problematic for many candidates and the wrong answers ranged over A, D
and E indicating that candidates found it hard to focus on the key, F. The speaker talks
about how fame and money can affect family relationships: ‘it affects how you get on with

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17

each other’ and concludes by saying ‘I think, in a different situation, we would’ve got on very
well indeed together. As it was, we put up with each other – but only just!’ This clearly rules
out A, D and E, and F is the only possible answer: ‘Our relationship wasn’t a very happy one’.
In Question 23 many candidates chose A and not B, possibly because they had answered B
in Question 21. However, the speaker emphasises how pleased he felt when someone at a
party regarded him ‘as a separate person, and not just as part of a famous family, which is
how everyone, including my dad, had always treated me’.

Part 4

Candidates also found this part of Test A difficult. The task was a 3-option multiple-choice
and all the questions with the exception of 25 proved challenging. In Question 27,
candidates hear the interviewer ask: ‘So how different was food a hundred years ago?’ Terry
replies: ‘… you would never get a bowl of perfect fruit. Fruit and vegetables were grown
without chemicals so they wouldn’t all have been the perfect shape we expect today. They
were probably a bit mis-shapen. Also you would expect some damage from insects. I often
have to let apples and pears get a bit old …’. Candidates had to interpret that what Terry
says underlines the ‘mis-shapen’ aspect of the fruit in order to choose A.

Question 28 proved exceptionally hard. Candidates hear the interviewer ask: ‘What about
other things people ate?’ Terry’s reply mentions fruit and vegetables when they are in
season, people who could afford to eat a lot of meat and people who lived inland who did not
eat sea fish. The inference candidates are expected to draw indicates that the correct
answer is C; people only had access to what was available where they lived and Terry does
not say that people ate more fruit and vegetables or that their diet consisted of mainly meat
and fish.

In Question 29, many candidates overlooked the correct answer B. Terry refers to many
actors being vegetarian, so he has to ‘make up dishes that look like meat but are actually
vegetarian. This keeps the actors happy.’ He certainly mentions that food can begin to
smell, but he emphasises that he has to be creative in making a lot of meat dishes vegetarian
and that is ‘very demanding.’

•

RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION

Part 1

Candidates should be aware that this part of the Paper is designed to enable them to settle
into the Listening Test in a relatively gentle way. Unlike elsewhere, they both hear and read
the questions and it is important that candidates realise that this support is intended to
remove some of the stress of doing a test in ‘real time’. However, this does not mean that
the questions are ‘easy’; candidates should attempt to concentrate as much as possible,
particularly since an option that may seem to be obviously correct on a superficial listening
may not in fact be correct. Additionally, teachers should give students plenty of practice in
dealing with the range of text types and focuses listed on page 15, so that candidates are
prepared for the pace and the change from question to question within Part 1.

Part 2

In preparing for this part of the test, candidates should be encouraged to establish the best
approach to recording the short answers which are the focus of this productive task.
Examiners make specific mention that some candidates’ handwriting is not sufficiently legible
to be easily read, and moreover that candidates do not always appear to take care that what
they write matches what comes before and, if relevant, after the gap. It is very unlikely that

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18

any answer will need more than four words and more often than not gaps can be filled using
fewer than four words. Candidates who hedge their bets by, for example, writing a number
and then unnecessarily also writing it in words may well penalise themselves if the additional
material is incorrect.

Candidates are not expected to rephrase what they hear and should therefore focus on
writing down the key information as it is heard in the text. Minor spelling mistakes are
accepted if the meaning of the word is not changed, but the words and phrases tested are
limited to those which candidates can reasonably be expected to spell correctly.

Part 3

Candidates should be advised to make good use of the second listening, even if they have
answered every question on the first listening. They may discover that they need to change
more than one answer if they discover a mistake, because one incorrect answer may have a
knock-on effect on other questions.

Part 4

Candidates should be prepared to encounter any of the task types listed in the Specifications
on page 15, as any of them could appear in any version. They should know that with all the
task types, adequate time is given for them to read the questions before they hear the
recording. In the multiple-choice question task, candidates are given a full minute to read
through the questions. In addition they should realise that, although a particular option is true
according to what is said in the recording, it is not necessarily the correct answer to the
question that the candidate is being asked to focus on. For example, ‘What did you find
annoying about his journey?’ may be followed by more than one option describing something
that really did happen to a speaker, but only one option will be something that he found
‘annoying’.

With regard to the matching tasks, any of the following formats may be used:

•

choosing from three options, e.g., which of the three places/things does this statement

refer to?

•

choosing from one option, another option or both, e.g., which book mentions this: Book A,

Book B or Both of them?

•

choosing from one option, another option or neither option, e.g., which person is this true

of, e.g. Person A, Person B or Neither of them?

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•

DO's AND DON'Ts for FCE PAPER 4 LISTENING

DO

use the time allowed before hearing each recording to carefully read through
all the questions so you are prepared for what you hear.

DO

look carefully at what is printed before and after the gap in Part 2 and think
about the kind of information that you are listening for.

DO

write your answers as clearly as possible in Part 2.

DO

check that your idea of what the correct answer is when you first hear the
recording is confirmed when you hear it for the second time.

DO

remember that any mistake you discover in Part 3 when hearing the recording
for a second time may affect your other answers.

DO

concentrate on understanding what speakers say, especially in Parts 1, 3 and
4, in as much depth as possible, rather than just being satisfied with the
surface meaning.

DON’T

rephrase what you hear in Part 2; write down the figure(s) or word(s) that you

hear spoken.

DON'T

complicate an answer in Part 2 by writing extra, irrelevant information.

DON'T

spend too much time on a question you are having difficulty with, as this may
make it harder to answer other questions.

DON’T

forget to make sure you have transferred your answers accurately to the
answer sheet.

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PAPER 5 - SPEAKING

Part

Task Type and Focus

Length of Parts

Task Format

1

Short exchanges between
each candidate and the
interlocutor

3 minutes

The interlocutor encourages
the candidates to give
information about themselves.

2

Giving personal
information; socialising

Long turn from each
candidate, with a brief
response from the other
candidate

Exchanging personal and
factual information;
expressing attitudes and
opinions; employing
discourse functions related
to managing a long turn

4 minutes

The candidates are in turn
given visual prompts (two
colour photographs) which they
each talk about for
approximately 1 minute. They
are also asked to comment
briefly on each other’s
photographs.

3

Candidates talk with one
another

Exchanging information,
expressing attitudes and
opinions

3 minutes

The candidates are given visual
prompts (photographs, line
drawings, diagrams, etc.) which
generate discussion through
engagement in tasks such as
planning, problem solving,
decision making, prioritising,
speculating, etc.

4

Candidates talk with one
another and the
interlocutor

Exchanging and justifying
opinions

4 minutes

The interlocutor encourages a
discussion of matters related to
the theme of Part 3.

•

Marking

The Speaking tests are conducted by trained examiners, who attend biannual co-ordination
sessions to ensure that standards are maintained.

The Assessor awards marks to each candidate for performance throughout the test
according to the four Analytical Criteria (Grammar and Vocabulary, Discourse Management,
Pronunciation and Interactive Communication). The Interlocutor awards marks according to
the Global Achievement scale, which assesses the candidate’s overall effectiveness in
tackling the tasks. These scores are converted by computer to provide a mark out of 40.

© UCLES 2001 0101

21

•

Candidate performance

Candidate performance in this administration was consistent with that of June 2000 and
historical norms. Feedback from Oral Examiners has been very positive and students overall
were very well prepared for this paper. Feedback indicates that this year's test materials have
been well received. Students who performed less well were those who did not listen carefully
to the instructions given or those who dominated the interaction at the expense of their
partner. To perform well a candidate should answer the task set and therefore should not be
afraid to ask for repetition of instructions before embarking on the task. Candidates should be
made aware that asking for the instructions to be repeated will not affect their marks in any
way, whereas redirection by the examiner once the task has begun may affect their
performance.

Part 1

This part of the test gives the examiners their first impression of the candidates and it is
therefore important that the candidates speak about themselves and their lives with
appropriate detail. One word responses are inadequate and will affect the score for
Interactive Communication. Candidates should also be advised not to prepare long
responses to questions that they feel they may be asked as this often means that they do not
answer appropriately. This tactic does not lead to effective Interactive Communication, and
is easily noticed by examiners. Candidates who have not met prior to the test should not feel
concerned as feedback from examiners indicates that this does not affect performance and in
some cases leads to a more natural interaction in this part of the test.

Part 2

The tendency in this part of the test is for candidates to focus on the pictures without listening
carefully to the task set by the examiner. Simply comparing and contrasting the two pictures
is unlikely to provide the candidate with enough to talk about for a full minute. Candidates
will always be asked to compare/contrast 'and say ... (something specific about the
photographs)...'. They should be trained to listen very carefully for the 'and say ...' so that
they complete the task and are able to continue for the full minute. Candidates should not
feel concerned if the examiner interrupts as this simply means that they have completed the
task. It is important for candidates to start talking as soon as they can in order to make full
use of their long turn.

Comments on released Test Materials

Finding Out

Candidates were shown two photographs of children finding out about things in different
ways. The first photograph showed a father and his son looking at the night sky together,
pointing at the stars, and the second showed children in the classroom looking at countries
on a globe. (Candidates were not expected to know the word ‘globe’, but to be able to say
e.g. ‘The children are learning about different countries in the world’). Candidates were
asked to compare and contrast the photographs and say what they would find interesting
about each situation. Candidates whose responses were restricted to ‘In this picture I can
see a father and son. They’re looking at the sky. In this picture the children are in class’, will
not have performed as well as those who went on to find further points of comparison e.g.
learning with the teacher/learning from your family, the importance of learning about the
world in the classroom/the value of learning about the world by going and seeing it for

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22

yourself. Candidates should also have moved beyond the pictures themselves to discuss
how interesting they find learning about different countries, why they are interested, and how
much they would enjoy e.g. the experience of being out at night in the countryside with the
family. In this way candidates will not run out of things to say and will make full use of their
long turn.

Picnics

Candidates were given two photographs showing people having picnics in different places.
The first showed a family on the beach with a car in the background and the second showed
a different family on a picnic out in the countryside surrounded by flowers. Candidates were
asked to compare and contrast the photographs and say why they thought people enjoyed
eating outside. Candidates were expected to compare the beach scene with the countryside
scene and say how much they thought the people were enjoying each situation, how they
had got to be there (e.g. car journey/walk in the countryside), the comfort of each situation
(sitting on the ground/round a table). They should then have moved on to talk about why
people enjoy eating outside, whether it is worth the necessary preparations, the advantages
and disadvantages of picnics, whether they would prefer to picnic in the countryside or at the
beach and so on.

Part 3

The aim of this part of the test is for candidates to discuss the task outlined by the examiner
as fully as possible, and to work towards a negotiated outcome in the time available. In this
part of the test candidates are always invited to do two things. They are required to respond
to and give their views on a range of visual prompts, then to come to a negotiated decision.
The wording of the rubric is:
'First talk to each other about......... . Then decide......................’
Candidates, presented with the visual stimulus, sometimes fail to hear the first part of the
instructions which is in fact the bulk of the task. Candidates who performed less well were
therefore those who made their decisions very early on in the interaction without first
considering and discussing as fully as possible the range of suggestions presented to them
and, as a result, ran out of things to say. Candidates should be trained to listen carefully for
the words 'First talk to each other about.....' and to internalise the task set. As already
mentioned in the section on candidate performance, candidates should be made aware that
they will not lose marks if they need to ask the examiner to repeat the rubric.

To perform well in this part of the test, candidates should be able to take a full and active part
in the interaction, making use of the range of visual stimulus available, expressing their own
views clearly, listening to their partner and developing their partner's comments. However,
candidates should be aware of the importance of inviting their partner to respond, ensuring
that both candidates take an equal part in the development of the interaction. Candidates
are expected to negotiate an outcome and should not be concerned if they do not agree.
Disagreeing in a friendly way can be an effective part of Interactive Communication.
However, strong disagreement can undermine their partner's confidence and an overbearing
candidate may lose marks. Candidates should make full use of the time available, starting
promptly and finishing only when the examiner interjects. They should not feel concerned if
they are asked to stop as this will probably mean that they have talked for the allotted time.

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Comments on released Test Materials

The Photo

Candidates were asked to imagine that they wanted to give an elderly friend a photograph
frame as a present. They were then shown eight photographs representing different times in
her life, together with a picture of the empty frame. Some of the photographs were black and
white to indicate the age of the photograph. The photographs showed:

•

the elderly lady as a child playing with her sister

•

her wedding day

•

with her own young child

•

her

home

•

with her husband

•

with

her

grandchildren

•

on a holiday

•

an up to date photograph of the lady herself.

Candidates were asked to talk to each other about why each photograph might be important
to her and then decide which photograph she would choose to put into the frame.
Candidates are often tempted to start with the words ‘I think she would choose the photo of
her wedding day because ...’. Candidates who did this often performed less well because
they came to their final decision without having fully explored the alternatives. Candidates
should not feel concerned if they are unable to make use of the full range of visual prompts
but they should have managed to discuss several photographs before making their decision.
Candidates should therefore be trained to discuss the different ideas offered as fully as
possible in the available time and come to a negotiated decision towards the end of their
three minutes, rather than making a decision at the outset and running out of things to say. In
this case candidates needed to explore the reasons why the different photographs were
important to the lady e.g. how important one big day in her life would be compared to
remembering the time when she was a child or the pleasure she would get looking at a
picture of her grandchildren, whether it was likely that she would want a picture of her home
in the frame and so on. Candidates were then expected to try to agree on a photograph for
the frame but were not penalised if they ran out of time.

Part 4

In this part of the test candidates are given a further opportunity to demonstrate their
language ability by engaging in a discussion with the examiner and their partner. It is
therefore vital that candidates offer more than a minimal response and take the opportunity to
initiate discussion as well as answer the examiner's questions. Candidates who performed
well in this part of the test were those able to develop and illustrate the topic, demonstrating a
range of vocabulary. Candidates generally performed confidently in this part of the test and
were often so enthusiastic that it became necessary for examiners to draw the Speaking Test
to a close!

Comments on released Test Materials

Following the discussion of the photographs (see Part 3), candidates were asked why they
thought people liked collecting photographs, whether they liked having their photograph
taken and how easy it is to take really good photographs. The discussion then became more
general and candidates were asked what other things help us to remember the past and how

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24

interested they were in learning about the past. Finally they were asked what they thought
people would remember most about the twentieth century. Candidates who performed well
were those who responded fully to the questions asked.

•

RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION

Candidates are expected to take a full and active part in the test. It is important, therefore,
that candidates seek as many opportunities to practise their spoken English as possible,
inside and outside the classroom. 'Exam training' can help with nervousness and candidates
certainly benefit from being familiar with the different parts of the test, but this is no substitute
for a genuine interest in the language. Candidates who put themselves in a position where
they need to use English on a regular basis are likely to perform well.

Part 1

For this part of the test candidates will benefit from finding opportunities to practise talking
about themselves, their likes and dislikes, personal/educational history, present
circumstances, plans and hopes for the future etc.

Part 2

Candidates can improve their performance in this part of the test by choosing pairs of
thematically linked photographs, practising comparing and contrasting them, and going on to
talk about the theme in a more general way. Candidates should time themselves to check
that they are able to keep going for a full minute. Without practice, candidates may find it
difficult to speak for a full minute in the test.

Part 3

The best preparation for this part of the test is for candidates to practise taking part in
discussions in small groups so that all candidates have the opportunity to take the floor.
Candidates with a quieter disposition should be encouraged to develop strategies to ensure
they are able to take their turn. Stronger candidates should be encouraged to invite opinions
from others. Suitable thematic areas for discussion can be found in FCE coursebooks and
should relate to the candidate's own experience rather than more abstract concepts. (See
the FCE Handbook for a list of topic areas.)

Part 4

As in Part 3, candidates will benefit from being given as many opportunities as possible to
give their opinions on a range of issues, and to expand on their views while inviting opinions
from others and responding to them.

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•

DOs and DON'Ts for FCE PAPER 5 SPEAKING

DO

familiarize yourself with the focus, function and procedures of all parts of the
test.

DO

take every opportunity to practise your English in groups and pairs and outside
the classroom before the test.

DO

listen carefully to instructions given and questions asked throughout the test
and focus your answers appropriately.

DO

respond to your partner's contributions and invite your partner to contribute in
Parts 3 and 4.

DO

speak clearly so that both the assessor and the interlocutor can hear you.

DO

make use of opportunities to speak in all parts of the test and give extended
contributions where you can.

DO

ask for repetition of instructions if you are unclear about what you should do.

DO

make sure that you answer the additional question in Part 2 as well as
comparing and contrasting the photographs.

DO

be prepared to initiate discussion as well as responding to what your partner
has said.

DON'T

prepare long responses in advance. You are unlikely to answer questions
appropriately.

DON'T

try to give your views during your partner's long turn.

DON'T

try to dominate your partner or to interrupt him or her in an abrupt way.

DON'T

allow frequent pauses and hesitations during the interaction or during your
long turn. Make full use of the time available.

DON'T

worry if you disagree with your partner in Parts 3 and 4. As long as you are
not overbearing this is all part of interactive communication.

DON'T

worry about being interrupted by the examiner. For administrative reasons it
is important that tests do not overrun.

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26

FCE Examination Report December 2000 - 0101

We are interested in hearing your views on how useful this report has been.

We would be most grateful if you could briefly answer the following questions and return a
photocopy of this page to the following address:

UCLES
Reports Co-ordinator
EFL
1 Hills Road
Cambridge
CB1 2EU

Fax:

+ 44 1223 460278

1.

Please describe your situation: (e.g. EFL teacher, Director of Studies, School
Owner, etc.)

2.

Have you prepared candidates for FCE?

YES/NO

3.

Do you plan to prepare candidates for FCE in the future?

YES/NO

4.

How have you used this report? (e.g. to provide feedback to other teachers, for
examination practice, etc.)

5.

Which parts of this report did you find most useful?

6.

Which parts are not so useful?

7.

What extra information would you like to see included in this report?

8.

Your name (optional)......................................................................................

School ...........................................................................................................

Thank you.