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Domande Ops Procedures
Data:
Nome Allievo:
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123) The tire pressure of an aircraft main landing gear is 10,8 117) Posit :
bars. The speed at which the hydroplaning phenomenon
will appear is approximately: g, the longitude difference
Lm, the average latitude
Lo, the latitude of the tangent
A 56 kt
The transport precession is equal to :
B 87 kt
A 15°/h.sin Lm
145 kt
C
B g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)
D 112 kt
g/2.sin Lm
C
90) The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is :
D g.sin Lm
A 3 hours
118) A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for:
B 24 hours
1. a paper fire
2. a fabric fire
12 hours
C
3. an electric fire
4. a wood fire
D 6 hours
5. a hydrocarbon fire
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
114) Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first is:
to change its value when penetrating a windshear ?
A 1, 3, 5
A Pitch angle.
B 2, 3, 4
B Vertical speed.
2, 4, 5
C
Groundspeed.
C
D 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D Indicated airspeed.
119) The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip :
115) In the hazardous materials transportation act, the
freight compliance with the regulatory arrangements is
A clockwise.
the responsibility of the :
B counterclockwise.
A station manager.
from the upper side of the wing toward the underwing.
C
B aerodrome manager.
D from the underwing toward the upper side of the wing.
sender.
C
D captain.
120) According with the "noise abatement take-off and climb
procedure B", as established in DOC 8168 - Ops Volume
1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until
116) The authorization for the transport of hazardous
reaching :
materials is specified on the:
A 1 500 ft
A insurance certificate.
B 3 000 ft
B air carrier certificate.
1 000 ft
C
registration certificate.
C
D 500 ft
D airworthiness certificate.
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112) One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it : 125) Astronomic precession is :
A occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the A existing whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying
horizontal plane
B independent of the latitude
B can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane
depending on the chart used
C
can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal
C
planes
D zero when the aircraft is on the ground
D occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the
vertical plane
126) The standby power supply powering the standby
artificial horizon must be operable on board any aircraft
of more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers during
122) The validity period of a flight track system organized in
at least :
MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification)
airspace during a Westbound flight normally is :
A 60 minutes.
A 00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
B 15 minutes.
B 11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
2 hours.
C
10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
C
D 30 minutes.
D 01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
127) From the following list :
1. Fire extinguishers
111) In accordance with JAR-OPS1, a Category III B
2. Portable oxygen supplies
operations, is a precision instrument approach and
3. First-aid kits
landing using ILS or MLS with, a decision height lower
4. Passenger meals
than 50 ft, or no decision height and a runway visual
5. Alcoholic beverages
range lower than 200 m but no less than :
Which are classed as Dangerous Goods that are
required to be on the aeroplane in accordance with
A 75 m
relevant JAR's for operating reasons :
B 150 m
A 2,3 and 4 only
100 m
C
B 1,2 and 3 only
D 50 m
1,2 and 5 only
C
D 3,4 and 5 only
124) You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for :
1. a paper fire
128) The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends
2. a plastic fire
primarily on the :
3. a hydrocarbon fire
4. an electrical fire
A depth of the standing water on the runway.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is: B aircraft's weight.
A 3,4
strength of the headwind.
C
B 1,2,3
D amount of the lift off speed.
2,3
C
D 1,2,3,4
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129) You plan to fly from point A (60°N 010°E) to point B 121) In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off
(60°N 020°E). aircraft:
The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be
operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is
A The runway will be clear of any hazard turbulence.
aligned with the true North of point A.
The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting
B The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the
from A given that the flight time scheduled is 1h30 min
runway.
with a zero wind, is equal to :
The left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
C
A 076°.
D The right and left wake turbulence stays approximately on
B 080°.
the runway.
066°.
C
101) The captain is asked by the authority to present the
D 085°.
documents of the aircraft. He
A can refuse to present them.
130) When a course is plotted at minimum time route, one
B can only do so after having consulted the operator.
passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding
ground isochrone by applying to point K (original spot)
a vector KK' which is equal to: must do so, within a reasonable period of time.
C
A mean wind from the preceding ground isochrone.
D can request a delay of 48 hours.
B wind at K'.
178) During take-off an aircraft hits a bird. Due to control
wind at K.
C
vibrations a landing must be made immediately.
Following this incident the pilot :
D mean wind up to the next ground isochrone.
A must file a airworthiness report
B is not obliged to report this incident
131) You are the captain of a commercial airplane and you
notice, after take-off, a flock of birds which may present
a bird strike hazard, you must: must file a Bird Strike report
C
A immediately inform the appropriate ground station.
D must file an AIR PROX report: the Control Tower having
given no warning
B inform the other aircraft by radio.
inform the appropriate ground station within a reasonable
C 92) The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to
period of time.
be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and
following an emergency descent are that for pilots it
D draft a bird strike hazard report upon arrival and within at
shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin
most 48 hours.
pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That
minimum of X feet is :
A 15000 ft
132) If airworthiness documents do not shown any
additionnal correction factor for landing performance
determination on a wet runway, the landing distance B 25000 ft
shall be increased by:
13000 ft
C
A 10%.
D 14000 ft
B 5%.
15%.
C
D 20%.
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93) The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is 97) Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is
established by: covered with a thin film of water and:
A the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted A is very smooth and clean.
by the authority
B is rough textured.
B the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the
manufacturer
the tyre treads are not in a good state.
C
the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the
C
D is very smooth and dirty.
authority
D the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
98) Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at
take-off:
94) During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport
A separate to the left side.
precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro North
with respect to the:
B separate on each side of the runway.
A magnetic North
stagnate on the runway.
C
B compass North
D separate to the right side.
true North
C
D grid North
113) If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of
one of the organised tracks, the intended organised
track should be defined in items of the FPL by :
95) An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe
A using the abbreviation "OTS" followed by the code letter
approach, it is necessary to :
assigned to the track.
A maintain the normal approach speed up to landing
B inserting coordinates defining significant points with
intervals of 10° of longitude.
B carry out an approach with flaps up, in order to avoid
exposing too much lifting surface to the rain
the abbreviation "NAT" followed by the code letter assigned
C
to the track.
increase its approach speed, because the rain affects the lift
C
by deteriorating the boundary layer
D inserting coordinates as detailed in the NAT track message.
D reduce the approach speed, because the runway may be
very slippery on landing
100) At 18h40min UTC, a complete failure of the inertial
systems of an aircraft flying on the LONDON-
ANCHORAGE line occurs in the geographic North pole
96) (For this question use annex 071-2070A)
region. The wind is nil, the grid heading at this moment
is 315°. The crew then uses the Sun to continue the
On the diagram where :
flight. The bearing of the Sun on occurence of the failure
is :
Nt = True North
Nm = Magnetic North
NOTE: The time equation is nil. The chart used is a polar
Ng = Grid North
stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the zero
meridian, the Grid North is in direction of the geographic
If the magnetic variation is equal to 65°W and if the grid
North pole.
variation is equal to 4°E, the correct arrangement of the
different north is :
A 000°.
A 1
B 325°.
B 2
035°.
C
3
C
D 180°.
D 4
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135) In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain 105) The frequency designated for VHF air to air
: communications when out of range of VHF ground
stations in NAT region is :
1. you increase your approach speed,
2. you land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the
A 243 MHz.
wheels with the runway and immediately land your nose
gear,
B 118.5 MHz.
3. you decrease your approach speed,
4. you use systematically all the lift dumper devices,
131.8 MHz.
C
5. you land as smoothly as possible,
6. you brake energically.
D 121.5 MHz.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is :
106) To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:
A 1, 2, 4
A Extinguish fire and reduce air conditioning.
B 3, 5
B Extinguish fire only.
2, 3, 4
C
Fire-fighting is not necessary, since the transport of
C
D 1, 4, 5, 6
combustible goods in an air-conditioned cargo hold is
forbidden.
102) Astronomic precession :
D you turn off the cargo hold ventilation and extinguish fire.
A is zero at the South pole
107) An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of
eight occupants (including pilot).
B causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the southern
The pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two
hemisphere
children (5 and 6 years old).
The boarding of all passengers is:
causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Southern
C
hemisphere
A authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same
D is zero at the North pole seat and using the same seat belt. No other particular
precautions are necessary.
B authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same
103) Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their
seat, using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the
safety belt fastened:
seat next to them, in order to release their seat belt if
necessary.
A from take off to landing.
authorized, providing both children are of a similar stature,
C
B while at their station. sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt with
an adult sitting on the seat next to them in order to relase thir
seat bel
only during take off and landing.
C
D forbidden.
D only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by
the commander in the interest of safety.
108) Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence
appear as soon as the following is established :
104) For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is
the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy
A spin up
aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy
aeroplance on the approach to the same runway ?
B lift destruction
A 3.7 km (2 NM)
lift
C
B 7.4 km (4 NM)
D drag
9.3 km (5 NM)
C
D 11.1 km (6 NM)
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109) Beneath fire extinguishers the following equipment for 159) During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum
fire fighting is on board: Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you
expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1000 UTC ; you will
normally be :
A a big bunch of fire extinguishing blankets.
A out of the organised route system.
B crash axes or crowbars.
B in random airspace.
water and all type of beverage.
C
in a day flight route system.
C
D a hydraulic winch and a big box of tools.
D in a night flight route system.
110) An operator must ensure that, for the duration of each
flight, be kept on the ground a copy of the :
160) Astronomic precession :
A flight route sheet.
A causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Northern
B operation flight plan.
hemisphere
ATC (Air Traffic Control) flight plan.
C
B causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the Northern
hemisphere
D flight plan processing.
is zero at the North pole
C
D is zero at the South pole
99) During a flight, the chief steward informs the crew that a
passenger is using a portable device suspected to
disburb the aircraft electronic systems. The captain:
161) In the "worst case" scenario of recovery from the effects
A may authorize the use of this device, as an exception. of a microburst, having increased to full go-around
power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be
necessary to :
B must not authorize any person to use such a device on
board.
A increase the pitch angle until the stick shaker is felt and hold
authorizes its use except during take-off and landing phases. at slightly below this angle
C
B climb away at Vat + 20 kt
D authorizes its use during the whole flight phase.
reduce speed to V2 and hold
C
168) During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart
D slowly increase speed whilst maintaining a positive rate of
precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving
climb
aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the :
A true North for a given chart
162) When the weather conditions require an alternate
aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be
B true North for any chart
located, for a twin-engined aircraft, at an equivalent
distance not exceeding :
grid North for a given chart
C
A 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two engines
D grid North for any chart
B 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with single engine
158) An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with two engines
C
altitude of 31000 ft . What is the initial action by the
operating crew ?
D 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with a single engine
A transmit a MAYDAY message
B place the seat belts sign to ON
to put on oxygen masks
C
D disconnect the autopilot
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163) A passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes: 167) Wake turbulence risk is highest :
1. on himself/herself
A when a preceeding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust
2. in his/her hand luggage
just prior to take off.
3. in his/her checked luggage
B when a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
closely situated parallel runway with a light crosswind.
is:
if, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at
C
A 1, 2
the same runway with heavy crosswind.
B 2, 3
D following a preceding aircraft at high speed.
1
C
155) The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment
D 1, 2, 3
which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and
the additonnal procedures to be observed accordingly.
This list is prepared by:
164) On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the
passengers must be supplied with oxygen throughout A the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual
the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which
the pressure altitude is between :
B the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual
A 10 000 ft and 13 000 ft
the operator, and it is appended to the flight manual
C
B 10 000 ft and 12 000 ft
D the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual
11 000 ft and 13 000 ft
C
169) About procedures for noise attenuation during landing:
D 11 000 ft and 12 000 ft
A Such procedures will not involve the prohibition of using
reverse thrust .
165) The braking efficiency is a piece of information
presenting itself in the form of a :
B They prohibit the use of reverse thrust .
A combination of the terms: poor, medium, good.
Such procedures do not exist.
C
B percentage varying from 10 % to 100 %.
D They are applied in the case of an instrument approach only.
zero followed by two decimals.
C
170) According to the JAR OPS, when a commercial
D letter falling between A and E.
transport passenger airplane is equipped with a door in
the flight crew compartment area, this door must
include:
133) The minimum navigation equipment required for an
aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can
A a locking system to prevent any unauthorized access.
be at the very least :
B a device preventing the flight crew from being locked in the
A Two inertial navigation units and a DECCA.
cockpit.
B Three inertial navigation units.
distinctive red or yellow colored markings indicating the
C
access area (in case of a blocked door).
One inertial navigation unit.
C
D a sealing system allowing the maintenance for as long as
possible of the pressure in the cockpit in case of a
D Two inertial navigation units.
depressurization in the compartment area.
171) The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :
A the aircraft state of registry
B the operator
the manufacturer
C
D the aircraft manufacturer's list
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172) According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence 176) Arriving at the point of entry into MNPS (Minimum
radar separation minima of 9,3 Km (5,0 NM) shall be Navigation Performance Specification) airspace over the
applied when a : North Atlantic and not having yet received the oceanic
clearance, the crew :
A HEAVY aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the
same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft) A carries out a holding pattern
B MEDIUM aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at
B returns to base immediately
the same altitude or less than 300 n (1 000 ft)
keeps flying in accordance with the air-filed flight plan
C
LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the
C
same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000.ft)
D keeps flying deviating its course by 30 nautical miles from
that of the air-filed flight plan
D LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the
same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft)
1) The touch down areas located at both ends of the
runways are typical for the appearance of:
173) According to the JAR-OPS regulations, an IFR flight
with no alternate airfield can be undertaken only if the
A rubber reversion hydroplaning.
minimum weather conditions stipulated in the
regulations are effective for at least :
B rubber steaming hydroplaning.
A 3 hours before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of
arrival
viscous hydroplaning.
C
B 3 hours before to at least 3 hours after the expected time of
D dynamic hydroplaning.
arrival
1 hour before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of
C
arrival
166) In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight
manual inidicates a minimum crew of one pilot, when do
D 2 hours before to at least 2 hours after the expected time of
the regulations require the presence of a second pilot ?
arrival
A if the flight lasts more than 3 hours.
174) During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to
B never.
windshear with a decreasing tail wind. In the absence of
a pilot action, the aircraft :
if the aircraft is a twin-engine.
C
1- flies above the glide path
D if part or all the flight is done at night.
2- flies below the glide path
3- has an increasing true airspeed
4- has a decreasing true airspeed
146) The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:
the combination of correct statements is :
A 60 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.
A 2,3.
B 60 NM between aircraft operating below MNPS airspace.
B 2,4.
90 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.
C
1,3.
C
D 90 NM between all aircraft flying in the NAT region.
D 1,4.
89) In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you :
175) The JAR-OPS is based on :
A fight the nozzle fire with a water fire-extinguisher.
A The Federal Aviation Requirements (FAR)
B carry out a dry cranking.
B A JAA guideline
carry out a damp cranking.
C
ICAO Appendix 6
C
D pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire-
D The air transport rules
extinguishers.
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136) A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an 139) If both precision navigation systems of an aircraft are
approach which may be carried out with a runway visual unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and if
range of at least : you cannot establish communication with the air traffic
control, you :
A 75 m
A take an intermediate flight level
B 150 m
B descend below the MNPS space
250 m
C
return to departure airport
C
D 200 m
D land at the nearest airport
137) For stable clouds:
140) JAR OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishes
1- the most favourable temperatures for icing are that, the operator shall ensure about VFR flights, that :
between 0°C and -10°C
2- the most favourable temperatures for icing are
A for conducted VFR flights in airspace E, flight visibility at
between 0°C and -15°C
and above 3 050 m. (10 000 ft) is 5 km at least (clear of
3- icing becomes rare at t < -18°C
cloud)
4- icing becomes rare at t < -30°C
5- the diameter of water droplets is between 0.002 and B special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is
0.03mm less than 3 km
6- the diameter of water droplets is between 0.004 and
0.2mm for conducted VFR flights in airspace B, horizontal distance
C
from clouds is 1 000 m at least
Which of the following combinations contains all the
correct statements? D for conducted VFR flights in airspace F, vertical distance
from clouds is 250 m at least
A 2 - 3 - 5
B 1 - 4 - 6
141) The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records:
1 - the training
1 - 3 - 5
C
2 - the test results
3 - a log of flying hours
D 2 - 4 - 6
4 - a summary of the training by reference period
Which of the following combinations contains all of the
138) In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust correct answers?
or strong down wind which forces you to go around. You
A 2 - 3
1- maintain the same aircraft configuration (gear and
flaps)
B 3 - 4
2- reduce the drags (gear and flaps)
3- gradually increase the attitude up to triggering of
1 - 2 - 3 - 4
C
stick shaker
4- avoid excessive attitude change
D 1 - 2 - 3
The combination of correct statements is :
A 1,4
142) The system which must be switched off in case of a
belly compartment fire is generally the :
B 2,3
A ventilation of the cargo compartment
2,4
C
B pressurization
D 1,3
total airconditioning
C
D trim air
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143) The safety position for adults looks like: seat belts 147) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum required
fastened, recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot
operation under IFR or at night shall be :
A cross the arm in front of the face.
A 5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out
during the preceding 90 days on the type or class of
B head placed on a knee cushion, arms around the thigh.
aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
head down as far as possible, grasp the passenger in front
C
B 5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out
of you.
during the preceding 30 days on the type or class of
aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
D head down as far as possible, grasp the legs with your arms.
5 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out
C
during the preceding 90 days on the type class of aeroplane
in the single-pilot role.
157) For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is
a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the :
D 3 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out
during the preceding 90 days on the type class of aeroplane
1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.
in the single-pilot role.
2- speed is greater than 123 kt.
3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the
tyre grooves.
4- speed is greater than 95 kt.
148) Which of the following requirements should be met
when planning a flight with icing conditions:
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
A The aircraft shall before flight be sprayed with anti-icing fluid
A 1 and 2.
B A meterologist shall decide whether the flight may be
performed without ice-protection systems
B 1 and 4.
The aircraft shall be equipped with approved ice-protection
C
3 and 4. systems
C
D The flight should be planned so that a change of cruising
D 2 and 3.
level can be initiated rapidly
145) Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an
149) The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure
aeroplane's mainwheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the
being carried out will vary considerbly depending on the
approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning
ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a
may occur in the event of applying brakes is :
given ambient temperature, the longest protection will
be in weather conditions of :
A 114 kt
A frost
B 100 kt
B freezing fog
80 kt
C
rain on a cold soaked wing
C
D 129 kt
D steady snow
156) A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a
SNOWTAM is :
150) A category D aircraft can carry out an indirect approach
followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal
A unreliable
visibility is higher than or equal to :
B medium
A 2400 m
good
C
B 1600 m
D poor
1500 m
C
D 3600 m
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151) In a polar Antarctic regions, the pilot uses a South polar 144) H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:
stereographic chart whose printed over grid is parallel
with the zero meridian and Grid North in the direction of
A Class A fires
geographic North along this meridian.
The aircraft position is 80°S 130°E, its true route is 110°,
the grid route at this moment is : B Class B fires
A 060°.
electrical source fires
C
B 110°.
D special fires: metals, gas, chemical products
340°.
C
34) While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of
D 240°.
a transport aircraft notices a fast and high increase in
the indicated airspeed without any change in the
preselected engine and attitude parameters. The
preceding crews had reported the occurrence of
152) A category I precision approach (CAT I) has :
windshears in final phase. you must :
A a decision height equal to at least 100 ft. A reduce rapidly the selected thrust, maintain on the glide path.
B a decision height equal to at least 50 ft. B take a level flight attitude to reduce speed, then come back
to glide path from above.
no decision height.
C
reduce rapidly the selected thrust in order to reach 1.2 Vs
C
and try a precision landing.
D a decision height equal to at least 200 ft.
D maintain the aircraft on the glide path, accept a positive
speed deviation, monitor the speed evolution.
153) DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence
separation minima shall be based on a grouping of
aircraft types into three categories according to the
91) During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit,
maximum certificated take-off mass.
seeing an aircraft coming from the front right right, will
Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of :
first see the :
A 136 000 Kg or more
A green flashing light
B 135 000 Kg or more
B red steady light
less than 136 000 Kg but more than 126 000 Kg
C
green steady light
C
D 146 000 Kg or more
D white steady light
154) A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude
25) A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is
will have :
parallel to the zero meridian, with Grid North in the
direction of the North geographic pole.
A increased Mach number stability
In polar regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro
mode after leaving the 6 microteslas zone, and the grid
B reduced range heading controlled by information from the inertial
navigation system (INS) is 045°. After switching to
"magnetic mode", the compass heading is 220°. The INS
increased manoeuvring limits
C
position at this moment is 76°N 180°W. The magnetic
variation on the chart is 10°E.
D increased flight envelope
The compass shift on this heading at this point in time
is:
A +15°.
134) What transponder code should be used to provide
recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to
unlawful interference :
B -5°.
A code 7700
+5°.
C
B code 2000
D -15°.
code 7500
C
D code 7600
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26) According to the JAR-OPS rules, the route of a twin- 30) The regulatory green navigation light is located on the
engined aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off starboard wing tip, with a coverage angle of :
mass exceeding 8618 kg or a maximum approved
seating configuration of more than 19 passagers must
A 110°.
be planned in such a way that on one engine an
appropriate aerodrome can be reached within :
B 140°.
A 90 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
70°.
C
B 120 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
D 220°.
60 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
C
31) When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM
D 30 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time
approach separation, according with DOC 4444 (ICAO),
shall be :
27) In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are
known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the
A 1 MIN
country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of
unlawful interference must immediately notify the :
B 2 MIN
A State of the operator, the J.A.A. and ICAO
4 MIN
C
B State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator
D 3 MIN
only
State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and
C
ICAO
23) During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a
leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal
D State of Registry of the aircraft and the J.A.A.
spacing must be at least :
A 20 minutes
28) The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
B 5 minutes
Specification) airspace extends from :
10 minutes
A 30° North to 90° North. C
B 27° North to 70° North. D 15 minutes
30° North to 70° North.
C
33) The time of useful consciousness in case of an
D 27° North to 90° North.
explosive decompression at an altitude of
40 000 ft is:
A 1 minute.
29) In accordance with OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating
Minima - General), it is established, among other
B 5 minutes.
considerations, that an Operator must take full account
of Aeroplane Categories.
The criteria taken into consideration for classification of 12 seconds.
C
Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at
threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at
D 30 seconds.
the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3.
Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from
141 kt to 165 kt is :
22) The information concerning dangerous products that
passengers may carry, are listed in the :
A C
A JAR-OPS documentation.
B E
B ICAO document named "Technical safety instructions for
D
C
the air transportation of dangerous products"
D B
aircraft's flight manual.
C
D IATA document "Dangerous products transportation".
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35) For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the 39) When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing
landing distance at the scheduled destination contamination by ice or frost will cause the following
aerodrome shall be less than the available landing effects:
distance multiplied by a factor of :
1 - an increase in the take-off distance
2 - a diminution of the take-off run
A 0.5
3 - an increase in the stalling speed
4 - a diminution of the stalling speed
B 0.8
5 - a diminution of the climb gradient
0.6
C
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is :
D 0.7
A 1, 2, 3
B 2, 3, 5
36) A fast decompression is recognizable by the following
elements:
1, 3, 5
C
1. mist in the cabin
2. blast towards the exterior of the aircraft
D 2, 4, 5
3. expansion of body gases
4. blast of air released violently from the lungs
The combination regrouping all the correct statements 40) An airplane creates a wake turbulence when :
is:
A generating lift.
A 1, 2, 3, 4
B flying at high speed.
B 2, 3, 4
using a high engine R.P.M.
C
1, 2, 3
C
D flying with its gear and flaps extended.
D 1, 4
41) The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers, sitting in
37) CO2 type extinguishers are fit to fight:
the travelling direction, in case of an emergency landing
1 - class A fires
are:
2 - class B fires
3 - electrical source fires
1. legs together and feet flat on the floor,
4 - special fires: metals, gas, chemical product
2. head resting against the back of the front seat,
3. forearms on the armrests,
Which of the following combinations contains all the
4. seat belt very tightly fastened,
correct statements:
5. head resting on the forearms.
A 2 - 3 - 4
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
B 1 - 3 - 4
A 1, 4, 5
1 - 2 - 3
C
B 1, 2, 3, 4
D 1 - 2 - 4
2, 3, 4
C
38) A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect approach D 2, 4, 5
followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal
visibility is higher than or equal to :
42) Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:
A 1600 m
B 1500 m
A no passenger is carried on the same flight
2400 m
C B the airline complies with the Technical Instructions
D 3600 m
national aviation administration permission has been granted
C
D government permission has been granted
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43) The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, 3) During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum
continuously lit in flight and located at the tip of the left Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you
wing is : expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC ; you
will then normally be :
A 140°
A in a random space.
B 70°
B out of the organized flight track system.
220°
C
within the organized daytime flight track system.
C
D 110°
D within the organized night-time flight track system.
32) In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you
fight the fire using: 4) The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge
lights and high intensity centre line lights. There is an
1. a dry powder fire extinguisher accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is
2. a water spray atomizer IFR qualified on type. The minimum horizontal visibility
3. a water fire-extinguisher required for take-off is:
4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher to the maximum
A 200 m.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
B 300 m.
A 3, 4
150 m if a threshold RVR is available.
C
B 1, 4
D 150 m.
1, 2
C
5) Your flight manual does not include specific
D 2, 3, 4
supplementary information on landing distances on wet
runways and the service bulletins or weather reports
indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated
12) The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry
Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight runway must be increased by:
levels:
A 18 %
A 280 and 400.
B 20 %
B 280 and 390.
17,6 %
C
275 and 400.
C
D 15 %
D 285 and 420.
6) Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:
2) In the event of a contingency which required an en-route
diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction
A all available extinguishers simultaneously.
of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC
clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft not able to
maintain its assigned flight level should: B all available liquids.
A Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated
all available extinguishers in sequence.
C
by 60 NM from its assigned route or track.
D only the extinguisher corresponding to the toilets.
B Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated
by 90 NM from its assigned route or track.
Descend below FL275.
C
D Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated
by 30 NM from its assigned route or track.
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7) The observations and studies conducted on the 46) In the event of a contingency which required an en-route
behavior of birds on the ground, ahead of an aircraft diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction
taking off and having reached an average speed of 135 of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC
kt, show that birds fly away : clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to
maintain its assigned flight level should:
A about two seconds beforehand
A If at FL410, climb 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate
aerodrome.
B about ten seconds beforehand
B If at FL410, climb or descend 500 ft, while turning towards
as soon as they hear the engines noise
C
the alternate aerodrome.
D from the beginning of the takeoff roll
If at FL410, descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the
C
alternate aerodrome.
D If at FL410, climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning
8) If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR
towards the alternate aerodrome.
indications will be:
A Less than the actual.
13) At a high ambient temperature (+ 30° C) and with a
relative humidity as low as 40 %, in air free of cloud, fog
B Equal to the actual.
and precipitation, serious carburettor icing :
Dependent on the temperature.
C
A is possible at any setting
D Greater than the actual.
B can occur, but only at a low power setting
cannot occur
C
9) The minimum equipment list of a public transport
airplane is to be found in the :
D can occur, but only at full power or cruise settings
A flight record.
14) In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is :
B operation manual.
JAR OPS.
C
A 7600
D flight manual.
B 7700
2000
C
24) Which errors in "estimates" minutes shall be reported
by aircraft overflying the North Atlantic? D 7500
A 2 or more.
15) When refueling is being performed while passengers are
B 3 or more.
boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary
that: (Annex 6, Part I)
5 or more.
C
A Communications be maintained between ground personnel
D 10 or more. and qualified personnel on board.
B The aircraft's stairs be completely extended.
11) The most efficient bird scaring technique generally
Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding
C
available is :
and/or disembarking.
A firing shellcrackers
D All the flight crew be on board.
B various visual methods
the use of model predators, scarecrows, etc
C
D broadcasting of recorded distress calls
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16) (For this question use appendix ) 20) The ascent or descent through MNPS (Minimum
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace of a non
For the two labels represented in the appendix, the MNPS certified aircraft is :
principal and secondary risks are respectively:
A forbidden in all cases
A toxic material, corrosive
B authorized when the aircraft has two precision navigation
B corrosive material, toxic systems
authorized only if the aircraft is in radio contact with the
C
corrosive material, infectious
C
aircraft present in this space
D infectious material, corrosive
D authorized under radar control if the aircraft is in VHF
contact with the MNPS controller
17) In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM
and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway, or
21) The reference document dealing with air transport of
parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in
hazardous materials is :
approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied
a wake turbulence radar separation minima of :
A Instruction No. 300 of June 3, 1957
A 4 NM
B ICAO Appendix 18
B 3 NM
ICAO Appendix 8
C
2 NM
C
D the Washington Convention
D 5 NM
10) The validity period of a "certificate of airworthiness"
varies with the conditions under which the aircraft is
18) The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between
maintained.
aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is :
If the maintenance is carried out according to an
approved programme and done in a maintenance shop
A 30 NM.
approved by the Minister of Civil Aviation, the validity
period is:
B 90 NM.
A three years.
120 NM.
C
B three years for public transport aircraft and one year for the
others.
D 60 NM.
three years for public transport aircraft and five years for the
C
others.
19) During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent
Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold altitude
D three years if the aircraft has not undergone major
and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway
modifications.
threshold is at more than :
A 2 m (7 ft) below the airdrome altitude
79) Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical
Separation Minimum (RVSM) is used when operating in
B 2 m (7 ft) above the airdrome altitude
MNPS airspace?
4 m (14 ft) below the airdrome altitude A 60 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.
C
D 4 m (14 ft) above the airdrome altitude B 90 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.
60 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
C
D 90 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
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69) The chart in question is of the polar stereographic type 72) In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants will :
with its grid parallel to the zero meridian, and Grid North
in the direction of the North geographic pole. The gyro 1. evacuate women and children first.
does not comprise a rate correction device. 2. have the passengers embark directly in the liferafts.
The gyro-magnetic compass of an aircraft standing at an 3. prevent passenger movements which may impede the
aerodrome located at 59°57'N 010°30'E is switched to airplane's flotation ability.
free gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North being 4. ensure the complete evacuation of the airplane.
aligned with Grid North and the gyro heading reading
120°. A technical problem delays take off until 16.30 The combination regrouping all the correct statements
UTC. The gyro, whose mechanical precession is zero, is:
was not reset prior to take off.
The error (E) at the time of alignment on this runway will
A 1, 4
be :
B 2, 3, 4
A +32.5°.
2, 3
C
B +13°.
D 1, 2, 3, 4
+73.5°.
C
D -32.5°.
73) A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment
during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised
Track System) must be done :
70) Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in
the designation of a runway, under the following
A Prior entering the NAT region.
circumstances :
B As soon as possible after entering the NAT region.
1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds
15 knots.
When crossing the oceanic airspace boundary.
C
2. when the tail wind component, including gust,
exceeds 5 knots.
D At or prior entering the NAT region.
3. when the runway is not clear or dry.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is :
74) The pilot of a category A aircraft is flying a non-
precision direct IFR approach with the following
A 1,3.
operational minimums: MDH 250 feet and visibility 750
metres. RVR for threshold, mid and end of the runway
B 2,3.
are given by the controller...
1,2,3. A flying a non-precision approach, the pilot may start the final
C
approach only if he has a meteorological visibility higher than
750 metres. RVR are to be taken into account only for
D 1,2.
precision approaches.
B the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold RVR is
71) For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is higher than 750 metres.
the minimum separation time that is permitted when a
light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold and mid-
C
intermediate part of the same runway ? runway RVR are higher than 750 metres.
D the pilot may start the final approach if the three RVR are
A 3 minutes
higher than 750 metres.
B 4 minutes
75) A four-jet aircraft must be equipped with an in-flight fuel
5 minutes
C
jettisoning system in order to reduce the aircraft weight
in an emergency :
D 2 minutes
A unless it is capable of meeting the climb requirements :
2.7% in approach configuration with 1 engine inoperative
and 3.2% in landing configuration with all engines operative
B until the central tank is empty in order to cope with the wing
and landing gear constraints at landing touchdown
in order to reach the maximum structural landing weight in
C
less than 15 minutes after activation of the jettisoning system
D in order to reduce the landing distance to 60% of the
effective runway length
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76) In addition to the languages required by the State of 80) Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least
Origin, what language should be set for the markings likely to attract flocks of birds ?
related to dangerous goods :
A an area liable to flooding
A English, French or Spanish
B short gang-mown grass
B English
long grass
C
French
C
D edible rubbish
D Spanish
81) For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational
44) An aircraft flies a VOR/DME direct approach for which take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate
the operational minima are : MDH = 360 feet, horizontal aerodrome is accessible at less than:
visibility = 1 500 metres :
Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2 500
A 60 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.
metres :
B 60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.
The pilot may start the final approach...
30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.
C
A if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is
higher than 240 feet.
D 30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.
B if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is
higher than 240 feet during the day and 360 feet at night.
82) MNPS is the abbreviation for:
whatever the ceiling given by ATC.
C
A Minimum Navigation Performance Specification.
D if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is
higher than 360 feet.
B Maximum North-atlantic Precision System.
Military Network Performance Structure.
78) In accordance with JAR OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome C
Operating Minima), the Category III A Operation, is a
precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or
D Minimum Navigation Positioning System.
MLS with a decision height lower than 100 feet an RVR
(runway visual range) no less than :
83) Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters
A 230 m
recorded during at least the last :
B 300 m
A flight.
200 m
C
B 48 hours of operation.
D 250 m
25 hours of operation.
C
D 30 hours of operation.
66) A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for:
1. a paper fire
84) If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be
2. a hydrocarbon fire
better to do so:
3. a fabric fire
4. an electrical fire
A under flight level 50 (FL50).
5. a wood fire
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
B during final phase of approach.
is:
in a straight line and at a relatively high flight level.
C
A 1, 3, 5
D in a holding stack, after control clearance.
B 2, 3, 4
2, 4, 5
C
D 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
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85) Following an explosive decompression, if you are using 77) When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum
an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator height at which a power reduction shall be allowed is :
controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure
oxygen when the supply selector is at the "normal"
A 600 m (2000 ft)
position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator
supply to the mask become pure oxygen only ?
B 300 m (1000 ft)
A 32000 ft
450 m (1500 ft)
C
B 25000 ft
D 150 m (500 ft)
14000 ft
C
57) Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS)
D 8000 ft
airspace of the North Atlantic is comprised within :
A sea level and FL660 from North parallel 27 to the pole
86) The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:
B flight levels 280 and 475 from North parallel 27 to the pole
A a voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in
flight levels 285 and 420 from the North parallel 27 to the
C
order to protect the aircraft and its occupants
pole
B an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may
D flight levels 270 and 400 from the equator to the pole
reasonably expect no injuries on board
an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may
C
reasonably expect no injuries on board or on the surface
179) Wake turbulence should be taken into account when :
D a landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no
injuries will result to the occupants
A during cruise the vertical separation is reduced to 1000 ft.
B a preceding aeroplane has performed low altitude high roll
87) On board a pressurized aircraft, a flight shall be
rate rolling manoeuvres over the runway.
undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an
oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part a much heavier aeroplane has landed just previously on the
C
of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the same runway, a light crosswind condition exist and all high-
event of a cabin depressurization, throughout the flight lift devices are being used.
period, during which the pressure altitude is greater
than : D when just before the landing a much lighter aeroplane has
landed with a strong crosswind on a long runway.
A 11 000 ft.
B 12 000 ft.
47) A class B fire is a fire of:
13 000 ft.
C
A electrical source fire
D 10 000 ft.
B special fire: metal, gas, chemical product
liquid or liquefiable solid
C
88) In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds
at :
D solid material usually of organic nature
A low altitude diverge from the center of the phenomenon and
the atmospheric pressure increases by a few hectopascals.
48) Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum
B low altitude diverge from the center of the phenomenon and differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the
the atmospheric pressure decreases by a few hectopascals. oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the
maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately :
high altitude converge on the center of the phenomenon and
C
the atmospheric pressure increases by a few hectopascals.
A 24500 ft
D low altitude converge on the center of the phenomenon and
B 22500 ft
the atmospheric pressure decreases by a few hectopascals.
27000 ft
C
D 29000 ft
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49) Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is 52) For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a
such that flight can be safely made, and that any risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the :
transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
(Annex 6, Part I) 1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.
2- speed is greater than 96 kt.
3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the
A The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot.
tyre grooves.
4- speed is greater than 127 kt.
B The company's cargo technicians.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
The captain.
C
is:
D The operator.
A 1 and 2.
B 1 and 4.
50) Aircraft using a VFR flight plan in controlled airspace
shall be equipped: (Annex 6, Part I)
2 and 3.
C
A Only as is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights.
D 3 and 4.
B With more anti-icing and/or de-icing devices (if one expects
icy conditions).
53) In the event of a contingency which required an en-route
diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction
As is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights, and such
C
of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC
aircraft must also possess indicators of attitude and course,
clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to
along with a precise barometric altimeter.
maintain its assigned flight level should :
D As is necessary for aircraft that operate in accordance with
A If below FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning
instrument flight rules.
towards the alternate aerodrome.
B If above FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning
51) (For this question use annex 071-9199A)
towards the alternate aerodrome.
Considering the two holds of an aircraft :
Each one consists of 4 compartments to accommodate
If below FL410, climb 500 ft or descend 1000 ft, while
C
freight pallets or luggage containers.
turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
You are asked to load :
2 pallets of live animals marked "AVI"
D If above FL410, climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while
2 luggage containers marked "BAG"
turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
1 mortal remains marked "HUM"
1 pallet of food product marked "EAT"
1 pallet of radioactive materials marked "RRY"
54) The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake
1 pallet of toxic materials marked "RHF"
created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:
The locations still vacant shall be marked "XXX"
According to the table of compatibility of special freight
A 10 minutes.
and hazardous materials given in the appendix, the most
operational distribution in the holds shall be :
B 3 minutes.
A Hold 1 : BAG - BAG - RRY - HUM
Hold 2 : AVI - AVI - XXX - EAT (RHF disembarked)
30 seconds.
C
B Hold 1 : BAG - RHF - HUM - RRY
D 1 minute.
Hold 2 : AVI - AVI - BAG - EAT
Hold 1 : EAT - BAG - RRY - RHF
C
Hold 2 : BAG - AVI - AVI - HUM
68) Posit :
D Hold 1 : EAT - BAG - AVI - AVI
g, the longitude difference
Hold 2 : BAG - HUM - RRY - RHF
Lm, the average latitude
Lo, the latitude of the tangent
The correct formula expressing the travel precession
applied during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is
equal to :
A g.sin Lm
B g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)
g/2.sin Lm
C
D 15°/h.sin Lm
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56) Information concerning evacuation procedures can be 60) Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in
found in the : accordance with IFR when:
A operational flight plan. A Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline
within uncontrolled airspace.
B operation manual.
B Operating at or above FL 60 or 2000 ft whichever is higher.
flight manual.
C
Flying above 3000 ft.
C
D journey logbook.
D Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline
within controlled airspace.
67) During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted
by the appropriate services and received by the crew
61) When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind
contains parameters below the crew's operational
coming from the right side, you adopt a path, whenever
minimums, the point beyond which the approach must
possible :
not be continued is:
A distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the
A the middle marker.
right of and above its path.
B the start final descent point (glide slope intersection).
B distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the left
of and under its path.
the outer marker (OM).
C
identical to the one of the preceding airplane.
C
D the FAF.
D different from the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it
and under its path.
58) If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action
to take is to :
62) The term decision height (DH) is used for :
A Determine which system is causing the smoke.
A a conventional approach.
B Cut off all air conditioning units.
B an indirect approach.
Put on the mask and goggles.
C
a conventional approach followed by a visual maneuver.
C
D Begin an emergency descent.
D a precision approach.
59) During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to
windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the absence
63) Products or materials are considered to be dangerous
of a pilot action, the aircraft :
goods if the products or materials in question are
defined as such by:
1. flies above the glide path
2. flies below the glide path
A The directives of the Community Union.
3. has an increasing true airspeed
4. has a decreasing true airspeed
B The IATA document entitled "Regulations governing the
transportation of dangerous goods by air".
The combination of correct statements is :
The ICAO document entitled "Technical Instructions for the
C
A 2,3
safe transport of dangerous goods by air".
B 1,3
D The UNO document entitled "Dangerous Goods
Regulations".
1,4
C
D 2,4
64) What is the transponder code to be used by an aircraft
that is subject to unlawful interference (hijacked) is :
A 7500
B 7600
7700
C
D 7800
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65) On a polar stereographic chart where the earth 268) Who has the responsibility to take adequate measures
convergence between 2 points located on the parallel for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft
60°N is 20°, the great circle maximum cross-track which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference
difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is : until their journey can be continued ? The :
A 30 NM. A contracting State in which the unlawful interference occurs
B 4.0 NM. B J.A.A.
9.2 NM. Commander of the aircraft
C C
D 4.0 NM. D aeroplane's operator
45) The information to consider for a standard straight-in 292) The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a :
approach is :
A high weight and low speed
1 - the horizontal visibility
2 - the ceiling
3 - the minimum descending altitude (MDA) B high weight and high speed
4 - the decision altitude (DA)
low weight and low speed
C
Which of the following combinations contains all of the
correct statements?
D low weight and high speed
A 1 - 3
293) Who has the responsibility for establishing operating
B 1 - 4
procedures for noise abatement purposes during
instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS
1 - 2 - 3
C
the :
D 1 - 2 - 4
A state in which the aeroplane is operating
B commander
55) The terminal VOR transmittes the following weather
data. When do you expect carburettor icing?
operator
C
A Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : -10°C
D state of the operator
Dew point (DEWP) : -15°C
B Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +10°C
Dew Point (DEWP) : +7°C 294) When an aircraft, having already undergone an anti-
icing procedure, must be protected again:
Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +15°C
C
Dew Point (DEWP) : -5°C
A you must wait until the protection time of the anti-icing fluid
is over before applying the new layer of anti-icing fluid.
D Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +25°C
Dew Point (DEWP) : +5°C
B First, you must de-ice again the surface of the airplane,
then apply the new layer of anti-icing fluid.
You can apply directly the new layer of anti-icing fluid without
C
301) A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be:
previous de-icing.
D You must operate the aircraft de-icing/anti-icing devices
A wet.
before applying the new layer of anti-icing fluid.
B flooded.
295) In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be
damp.
C
capable of jettisoning sufficient fuel to meet the precise
climb and discontinued approach requirements :
D contaminated.
A 60 minutes
B 90 minutes
15 minutes
C
D 30 minutes
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296) An operator must ensure that for the duration of each 300) The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating
flight, be kept on the ground, if required: conditions must take the following into account :
1. equipment available for navigation
A a copy of the calculated take-off performances.
2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways
3. composition of the flight crew
B the calculation of the airborne fuel quantity.
4. obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed
approach areas
the aircraft equipment report (logbook).
C
5. facilities for determining and communicating the
weather conditions
D a copy of the weight and balance sheet.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is :
297) While approaching the outer-marker, the tower informs
A 1,2,3,4,5
you about the presence of a "microburst". You will
expect to encounter:
B 1,2,4,5
A supercooled water.
2,4,5
C
B convection motion of air mass.
D 2,3,5
windshears (vertical and horizontal).
C
D wake turbulence .
289) For a given aircraft and runway contamination,
increased pressure altitude will:
A decreases the hydroplaning speed.
298) The chart is a South polar stereographic projection of
the Antarctic regions. A grid, printed over it, its aligned
B maintains the hydroplaning speed.
with meridian 180°, the grid North in the direction of the
geographic North (non standard grid).
The grid course followed by the aircraft is Rg=280°, the
maintains or increases the hydroplaning speed.
C
position is 80°S 100°E.
The true course followed at this moment is :
D increases the hydroplaning speed.
A 260°.
302) For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified
B 080°.
special routes unless otherwise specified, an aircraft
must be equipped with at least:
100°.
C
A One Inertial Navigation System (INS).
D 000°.
B Two Inertial Navigation Systems (INS).
290) For aircraft certified before the 1 april 1998, cockpit
Two independant Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS).
C
voice recorder must keep the conversations and sound
alarms recorded during the last :
D One Long Range Navigation System (LNRS).
A 30 minutes of operation.
303) The wake turbulence is the most severe when the
B 25 hours of operation.
aircraft is :
flight.
C
1. slow
2. heavy
D 48 hours of operation.
3. in a clean configuration
4. flying with a high thrust
The combination of correct statement is:
A 1, 2, 3
B 1, 4
1, 2, 3, 4
C
D 2, 3, 4
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304) The flight deck door should be capable of being : 308) An air traffic units may request the aircraft to report
position when flying east-west north of 70°N between
10°W and 50°W, every:
A directly locked from outside the compartment
A 5° of longitude.
B remotely locked by cabin crew operation from outside the
compartment
B 20° of longitude.
remotely locked from either inside or outside the
C
10° of longitude.
C
compartment
D 15° of longitude.
D locked from within the compartment
309) In the event of communication failure in an MNPS
305) After a landing, with overweight and overspeed
(Minimum Navigation Performance Specification)
conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The
airspace, the pilot must:
fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres:
A continue his flight compliance with the last oceanic
A only from left or right side.
clearance received and acknowledge by him.
B from any side.
B return to his flight plan route if its different from the last
oceanic clearance received and acknowledge by him.
under no circumstances.
C
join one of the so-called "special" routes.
C
D only from front or rear side.
D change the flight level in accordance with the predetermined
instructions.
306) Following an emergency landing which will need an
escape from the aircraft, you will:
310) The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight
1 - remain on the runway,
induces an increase in the:
2 - clear the runway using the first available taxiway,
3 - keep one engine or the APU running in order to
A roll rate
maintain the electrical power supply on,
4 - turn off all systems.
B stalling speed
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
value of the stall angle of attack
C
is:
D tuck under
A 2,4.
B 1,4.
299) An aircraft leaves point P (60°N 030°W) on a true
1,3. heading equal to 090° while the gyro compass, which is
C
assumed to be operating perfecly and without an hourly
rate corrector unit, indicates 000°.
D 2,3.
The aircraft arrives at point Q (62°N 010°W) on a true
heading equal to 095°. On the journey from P to Q the
gyro compass remains in free gyro mode.
307) (For this question use appendix )
If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes, the gyro heading at
Q will be :
If a packet is marked with the label shown in the
appendix it is :
A 345°.
A a toxic material or gas
B 003°.
B a corpse
334°.
C
an infectious material
C
D 328°.
D an explosive material
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279) ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) 272) For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a
Appendix 18 is a document dealing with : risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as :
1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.
A the noise pollution of aircraft
2- speed is greater than 132 kt.
3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the
B the technical operational use of aircraft
tyre grooves.
4- speed is greater than 117 kt.
the safety of the air transport of hazardous materials
C
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
D the air transport of live animals
is:
A 1 and 2.
177) A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an
B 1 and 4.
aircraft flying away from the shore by more than :
A 400 NM
2 and 3.
C
B 50 NM
D 3 and 4.
100 NM
C
273) If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the
D 200 NM
differential pressure :
A increases
270) In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the:
B remains constant
A indicated airspeed.
attains its maximum permitted operating limit
C
B Mach number.
D decreases
ground speed.
C
274) After take-off, an aircraft is subjected to windshear with
D true airspeed.
a decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action,
the aircraft :
271) The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and 1- flies above the climb-out path
reduce considerably the protection time: 2- flies below the climb-out path
3- has an increasing true airspeed
4- has a decreasing true airspeed
A during strong winds or as a result of the other aircraft
engines jet wash.
The combination of correct statements is :
B when the outside temperature is close to 0 °C.
A 1,4.
when the temperature of the airplane skin is close to 0 °C.
C
B 2,4.
D when the airplane is into the wind.
2,3.
C
D 1,3.
275) To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin
smoke is:
A useless because breathing oxygen would explode under
smoke conditions.
B possible and recommended.
useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the
C
breathing oxygen.
D useless because the oxygen units do not operate under
smoke conditions.
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276) In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, 280) If you encounter a "microburst" just after taking-off, at
which letter should be entered into a flight plan to the beginning you will have:
denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than
136000 kg but greater than 7000 kg : 1 - a head wind
2 - a strong rear wind
3 - better climb performances
A H
4 - a diminution of climb gradient
5 - an important thrust drop
B L
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
S
C
is :
D M
A 2,4
B 1,4
291) During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:
4,5
C
A the anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing
D 1,3
fluid is applied hot.
B the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot.
281) A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction
the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold.
C for:
1. a paper fire
D the de-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing
2. a hydrocarbon fire
fluid is applied hot.
3. a fabric fire
4. an electrical fire
5. a wood fire
278) According to the recommended noise abatement
procedures contained in the ICAO, DOC 8268 Volume I
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
part V, data available indicates that the procedure which
is:
results in noise relief during the part of the procedure
close to the airport :
A 2, 3, 4
A is procedure A
B 2, 4, 5
B is either procedure A or B, because there is not difference in
1, 3, 5
C
noise distribution
depends on the wind component D 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
C
D is procedure B
282) One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with
instrument flight rules unless the available information
indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of
313) To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use:
predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative
destination, are: (Annex 6, Part I)
1. a water fire-extinguisher
2. a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher
A At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the
3. a halon fire-extinguisher
minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher
B At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
is:
At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period
C
A 3, 4
before and after such a predicted time, equal to or better
than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
B 1, 2, 3, 4
D At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum
1, 2
C
conditions required for aerodrome use.
D 2, 3, 4
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283) 90 % of bird strikes occur : 287) When the weather conditions require an alternate
aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be
located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an
A between 500 and 1 000 m
equivalent distance not exceeding :
B between 500 and 1 500 m
A 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all enginesoperating
under 500 m
C B 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with 1 engine inoperative
D above 1 000 m
2 hours of flight at cruising speed with all engines operating
C
D 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all engine inoperative
284) The "NO SMOKING" sign must be illuminated :
288) For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is
A when oxygen is being supplied in the cabin.
a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the :
B during climb and descent.
1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.
2- speed is greater than 104 kt.
in each cabin section if oxygen is being carried.
C
3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the
tyre grooves.
D during take off and landing. 4- speed is greater than 96 kt.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements i :
285) Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a
A 2 and 3.
certain amount of information. The operator will see that
this file is kept on ground. It contains more particularly:
B 3 and 4.
1 - the weather conditions for the day including the
1 and 2.
C
weather forecast at destination,
2 - one copy of the operational flight plan and, if
required, the weight and balance sheet, D 1 and 4.
3 - copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft's materiel
report,
4 - the en-route NOTAM documentation when
277) An aircraft flying above flight level 410 on MNPS
specifically issued by the operator,
Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with
5 - notification for special loadings,
its air traffic control clearance (degradation of
6 - for each flight, details of the day's performances and
navigational performance requirements, mechanics
limitations with completed charts.
troubles... etc), bus is able to maintain its assigned level,
and due to a total loss of communications capability,
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The
is:
aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by
turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right of left whenever this
A 2,4
is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to
acquire and maintain in either direction track laterally
B 2,3,4,5
separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and :
1,2,3,4,5,6
C
A climb or descend 1 000 ft
D 1,3,5
B climb or descent 500 ft
climb 1 000 ft or descent 500 ft
C
286) During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you D climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft
expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 00H30 UTC ; you
will then normally be ;
346) A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is an
A within the organized daytime flight track system
approach with :
B within the organized night-time flight track system
A no runway visual range limits
in a random space
C
B a runway visual range of at least 50 m
D out of the organized flight track system
a runway visual range of at least 200 m
C
D a runway visual range of at least 350 m
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336) A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an 340) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure
approach which may be carried out with a runway visual that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as pilot-in-
range of at least : command unless :
A 200 m A he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings
as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator
of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
B 100 m
B he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command
250 m
C
in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to
be used, in the preceding 90 days
D 50 m
he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings
C
as pilot flying in any type of aeroplane or an approved
simulator, under the supervision of an examiner, in the
337) A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane
preceding 60 days
fails while you are still parked. The reference document
you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
D he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings
as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator
A the JAR OPS.
of the type to be used, in the preceding 30 days
B the flight manual.
341) In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in
the minimum equipment list.
C
an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency
D the operation manual's chapter "Abnormal and Emergency
for air-air communications is :
procedures".
A 128.800 MHz.
338) The minimum flight crew for night transport of
B 131.800 MHz.
passengers or according to the Instrument flight rules is
:
118.800 MHz.
C
A 2 pilots for any turbo-prop aircraft weighing more than 5.7
D 121.800 MHz.
tons or for any turbo-jet aircraft
B 2 pilots for turbo-jet aircraft and turbo-prop aircraft with
more than 9 passenger seats
342) For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be
located at a distance that : (Annex 6, Part I)
2 pilots for any aircraft weighing more than 5.7 tons or
C
having more than 9 passenger seats
A Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at
cruising speed with only one engine operative.
D 1 pilot for any aircraft weighing less than 5.7 tons, provided
that the maximum certified number of passenger seats is
B Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time at
less than 9
cruising speed all engines operating.
Does not exceed the equivalent of two hour of flight time at
C
cruising speed all engines operating.
339) During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum
Navigation Performance Spécification) airspace, you
D Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at
expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 2330 UTC ; you will
cruising speed with only one engine operative.
normally be :
A in a day flight route system
343) For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the
ICAO minimum radar separation time if a light
B in a night flight route system
aeroplance (7000 kg or less) is following a medium
aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg)
out of the organized route system
C
on the approach to landing ?
D in random airspace
A 4 minutes
B 5 minutess
2 minutes
C
D 3 minutes
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311) With the Control Display Unit (CDU) of an Inertial 347) In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you
Navigation System (INS), you can read the following will:
information :
1. set the maximum take-off thrust
- Desired track (DTK) = 100° 2. increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating
- Track (TK) = 120° the stick shaker
3. pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps)
You can conclude that the : 4. keep the airplane's current configuration
5. try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratio
A Track Error Angle (TKE) is left (L)
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
B Aircraft is converging towards its ideal course
A 1, 3, 5
Aircraft is diverging from its ideal course
C
B 2, 3
D Track Error Angle (TKE) is right (R)
3, 5
C
345) JAR-OPS 1 establishes that, a co-pilot is not assigned to
D 1, 2, 4
operate at the flight controls during take-off and landing
unless :
348) A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach
A he has carried out as-pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at lest
with :
three take-off and three landings in an aeroplane or an
approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding
30 days A a decision height of at least 100 ft
B he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command
B a decision height of at least 200 ft
or as a co-pilot at the controls of the type to be used, in the
preceding 90 days.
a decision height of at least 50 ft
C
he has operated as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at the
C
D no decision height
controls during take-off and landing of the type to be used in
the preceding 90 days.
D he has carried out as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at
349) At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation
least three take-off and three landings in an aeroplane or an
Minimum (RVSM) be used within NAT region?
approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding
90 days.
A Below FL290.
B Between FL290 and FL410.
333) An aircraft flying at flight level 370 (FL 370) on MNPS
Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with
Between FL275 and FL400.
C
its air traffic control clearance (degradation of
navigational performance requirements, mechanics
D Between FL245 and FL410.
troubles .... etc), but is able to maintain its assigned
level (FL 370), and due to a total loss of communications
capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from
ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or
350) When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a
track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left
domestic controlled area, the pilot has to:
whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action
will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a
A take the Mach number specified in this initial flight plan.
track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned
route and :
B take any Mach number.
A climb or descent 1 000 ft
take the Mach number provided for this type of flight by his
C
airline.
B climb or descent 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft
D maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the
climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft
C
last position shown in the oceanic clearance.
D climb or descend 500 ft
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351) The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a 355) According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-
cruising speed of 150 knots. The aircraft is flown by a radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied :
single pilot.
The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity
A to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from
runway centre lights and RVR readings for threshold
an intermediate part of parallel runway separated by less
mid and end of runway.
760 m
The approach minimums for runway 06 are :
DH = 300 feet, B to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft
Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 metres. arrival when operating on a runway with a desplaced landing
The weather conditions are : horizontal visibility (HV) threshold
900 metres and ceiling 200 feet.
to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft
C
Is take-off possible? departure when operating on a runway with a desplaced
landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected
A Yes, if there is an accessible airport within 75 NM. to cross
D Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a
B No, the ceiling being below the DH for the runway's
missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft utilizing an
approach procedure.
opposite-direction runway for take-off
No, visibility being below 1 200 metres.
C
344) According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-
D Yes, visibility being higher than the horizontal visibility for the
radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to
approach procedure.
:
A LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
352) If after anti-icing has been completed a pre-departure
inspection reveals evidence of freezing, the correct
B MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
action is to :
MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from
A carry out a further de-icing process C
an intermediate part of a parallel separated by less than 760
m
B complete departure as soon as possible to reduce the
possibility of further freezing
D LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an
intermediate part of the same runway
switch on all the aeroplane anti-icing and de-icing systems
C
and leave on until clear of icing conditions when airborne
D complete departure provided that the recommended anti-
324) A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach
icing holdover (protection) time for the prevailing conditons
which may be carried out with a runway visual range of
and type of fluid used has not been exceeded
at least :
A 500 m
353) For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen
masks are compulsory on board any pressurized B 550 m
aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than :
350 m
C
A 25 000 ft
D 800 m
B 13 000 ft
29 000 ft
C
267) A polar stereographic chart has a grid printed over it
which is parallel to the meridian 054°W, with Grid North
D 10 000 ft
in the direction of the North geographic pole.
An aircraft is following a true course of 330°.
At position 80°N 140°E, its grid heading (GH) with this
system will be :
354) The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines
the equipment on which certain in-flight failures can be
A 136°.
allowed and the conditions under which this allowance
can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by :
B 276°.
A the operator from a main list drawn up by the manufacturer
316°.
C
B the manufacturer and approved by the certification authority
D 164°.
the operator and is specified in the operation manual
C
D the operator and approved by the certification authority
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314) According to the recommended "noise abatement take- 318) Wind shear is:
off and climb procedure A" established in ICAO, DOC
8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to
A a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction
climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft
over a large distance
reaches :
B a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction
A 3 000 ft
over a short distance
B 2 000 ft
a horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance
C
1 000 ft
C
D a vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance
D 1 500 ft
319) The general information, instructions and
recommendations on the transport of hazardous
315) (For this question use annex 071-10645A)
materials are specified in the :
Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum
differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming the
A flight manual.
oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the
maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately :
B AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication).
A 20750 ft
air carrier certificate.
C
B 12000 ft
D operation manual.
8600 ft
C
320) A dry-chemical type fire extinguisher is fit to fight:
D 2900 ft
1- class A fires
2- class B fires
316) In the absence of wind and without the astronomic
3- electrical source fires
precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro
4- special fires: metals, gas, chemicals
heading, follow a :
Which of the following combinations contains all of the
A straight map line correct statements?
A 2 - 4
B great circle line
B 3 - 4
rhumb line
C
1 - 2 - 3
D spherical flight segment C
D 1 - 2 - 3 - 4
317) An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to
continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control
clearance (due to degradation of navigational
321) The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is
performance requirements), but is able to maintain its
drawn up by :
assigned level,and due to a total loss of
communications capability, could not obtain a revised
A the operator.
clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its
assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to
B the aircraft manufacture'rs list.
the right or left whenever this is possible, and the
subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain
the aircraft state of registry.
C
in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM
from its assigned route and climb 1 000 ft or descend
D the manufacturer.
500 ft, if :
A at FL 430
B at FL410
above FL 410
C
D below FL 410
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335) On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet 326) The first part of the JAR-OPS applies to:
engined aircraft must mandatorily have a minimum
quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during :
A the aircraft used by police, customs and defense
departments.
A 30 minutes with normal cruising consumption
B the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil
B 2 hours with normal cruising consumption
aircraft.
2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
C the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil
C
commercial transport aircraft.
D 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
D the aircraft proceeding from European states or flying over
them.
323) A recent aircraft must be provided with a flight data
recorder when its certified take-off gross weight is
327) In icing conditions and after the application of an anti-
greater than :
icing fluid on your airplane, you are waiting to take-off
by:
A 27 000 kg
1. avoiding positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of
B 5 700 kg
the preceding aircraft
2. avoiding positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash
14 000 kg
C of the preceding aircraft
3. positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the
preceding aircraft
D 20 000 kg
4. positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the
preceding aircraft
334) You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of:
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...)
2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...)
A 3, 4
3 - gas
4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...)
B 2, 3
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
1, 4
C
is:
D 1, 2
A 1,2,3,4
B 2,3,4
328) According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-
1,2,4
C radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to
:
D 1,2,3
A LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
B LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a
325) When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5
parallel runway separated by less than 760 m. (using whole
aircraft categories according to their speed at the
runway)
threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to
the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the
LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when
C
maximum certified landing weight multiplied by a factor
aircraft are using the same runway
of:
D MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
A 1.3
B 1.45
1.5
C
D 1.15
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329) When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for 312) On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engined
some considerable time a small leak develops in the aircraft must mandatorily have a quantity of fuel and
cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be lubricant sufficient for flying during :
seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will
indicate :
A 45 minutes at cruising speed
A a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential
B 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
pressure
45 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
C
B a rate of climb
D 30 minutes at cruising speed
a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm
C
D zero
322) (For this question use annex 071-2084A)
The inertial navigation system (INS) indicates:
330) The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class
Position: 71° 55.1'N 094°55.3'W
B fires are:
Drift: 6°L (left)
1 - H2O
The route followed in order to return to the VOR station
2 - CO2
is the meridian of the VOR station used:
3 - dry-chemical
RESOLUTE BAY (74°43.6'N 094°55.3W), this VOR has
4 - halogen
North set on the local geographic meridian.
The gyro compass has just been reset to Grid North
Which of the following combinations contains all of the
(chart used: polar stereographic chart, grid parallel to
correct statements?
zero meridian, Grid North in the direction of geographic
North Pole).
A 1 - 2 - 3 - 4
The correct representation of the RMI VOR/DME is at
this moment:
B 2 (the distance DME is in the box)
A 2
3 - 4
C
B 3
D 2 - 3 - 4
4
C
331) Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this
D 1
facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop
landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft,
dry runway) within:
212) During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to
A 60% of the landing distance available.
windshear with an increasing tail wind. In the absence of
a pilot action, the aircraft :
B 70% of the landing distance available.
1- flies above the glide path
2- flies below the gilde path
80% of the landing distance available.
C
3- has an increasing true airspeed
4- has a decreasing true airspeed
D 50% of the landing distance available.
The combination of correct statements is :
332) Following an explosive decompression, the maximum A 2,3.
altitude without oxygen at which flying efficiency is not
impaired is :
B 1,3.
A 14000 ft
1,4.
C
B 2500 ft
D 2,4.
8000 ft
C
D 25000 ft
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269) During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to 206) The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:
windshear with an increasing head wind.In the absence
of a pilot action, the aircraft :
A the aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on.
1- flies above the glide path
2- flies below theglide path B the Civil Aviation Authority of the european states.
3- has an increasing true airspeed
4- has a decreasing true airspeed
the airline operator.
C
The combination of correct statements is :
D the manufacturer.
A 1,3.
207) On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the
B 1,4.
passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the
flight period during which the pressure altitude is
2,3.
C
greater than :
D 2,4.
A 13 000 ft
B 12 000 ft
203) On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an
aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is
11 000 ft
C
suitable for making a emergency landing greater than
that corresponding to :
D 10 000 ft
A 400 NM or 120 minutes at cruising speed.
208) After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes
B 300 NM or 90 minutes at cruising speed.
you:
200 NM or 45 minutes at cruising speed.
C
A apply the parking brake and approach the wheels sidewards.
D 100 NM or 30 minutes at cruising speed.
B release the parking brake and you approach the wheels
either from aft or fore.
release the parking brake and you approach the wheels
204) A category B aircraft can carry out an indirect approach C
sidewards.
followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal
visibility is higher than or equal to:
D apply the parking brake and you approach the wheels either
from fore or aft.
A 1500 m
B 3600 m
209) The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class
A fires are:
2400 m
C
1 - H2O
2 - CO2
D 1600 m
3 - dry-chemical
4 - halogen
Which of the following combinations contains all of the
205) An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure
correct statements?
and having exceeded the protection time of the anti-
icing fluid:
A 1
A must only undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.
B 3 - 4
B need not to undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.
1 - 2 - 3 - 4
C
must only undergo a de-icing procedure for take-off.
C
D 2 - 3 - 4
D must undergo a de-icing procedure before a new application
of anti-icing fluid for take-off.
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201) A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required 214) In the JAR OPS, a runway is refered to as contaminated
to extinguish it. The safest extinguishant to use is : when more than 25 % of the required runway surface is
covered with the one of the following elements:
A dry powder
1. a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny
appearance to the runway.
B water
2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to
more than 3 mm of water.
CO2 (carbon dioxide)
C
3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be
compacted further).
D foam
4. ice, including wet ice.
5. moist grass.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
211) For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is
a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the :
A 2, 3, 4
1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.
B 1, 2, 3, 4
2- speed is greater than 114 kt.
3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the
tyre grooves.
1, 3, 4
C
4- speed is greater than 83 kt.
D 1, 3, 4, 5
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is :
A 1 and 4. 215) Windshear may be described as a change in wind
direction and/or speed in space, including updraughts
and downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear
B 2 and 3.
the amount of control action that is required is :
3 and 4.
C
A substantial
D 1 and 2.
B small
medium
C
200) For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing
fluid used, in which one of the following types of
D null
weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be
shortest ?
216) A analysis of the bird strikes shows that the highest risk
A Freezing rain
is encountered in a layer from :
B Steady snow
A from 0 to 150 m.
Freezing fog
C
B from 500 to 1200 m.
D Frost
from 100 to 800 m.
C
D from 200 to 500 m.
213) As regards the detection of bird strike hazard, the pilot's
means of information and prevention are:
1 - ATIS. 217) You will use a water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) on a
2 - NOTAMs. fire of :
3 - BIRDTAMs.
4 - Weather radar. 1 - solids (fabric, carpet, ...)
5 - The report by another crew. 2 - liquids (ether, gasoline, ...)
3 - gas
The combination regrouping all the correct statements 4 - metals (sodium, ...)
is :
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
A 1,2,5 is:
A 2
B 1,2,3,4,5
B 3
1,3,4
C
3 and 4
C
D 2,5
D 1
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218) During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, 210) The operator will include in the operations manual a list
seeing an aircraft coming from the front left, will first see of minimum required equipment approved by : (Annex 6,
the : Part I)
A green flashing light A The country where the aircraft is operated.
B green steady light B It is not mandatory that such a book be approved by aviation
authorities.
red steady light
C
The country of the operator.
C
D white steady light
D The country where the aircraft was manufactured.
219) The dangerous goods transport document, if required,
190) After an accident, the operator of an airplane equipped
shall be drawn up by :
with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings
for a minimum period of:
A the handling agent.
A 90 days.
B the shipper.
B 45 days.
the operator.
C
60 days.
C
D the captain.
D 30 days.
220) An airline operator shall make sure that if the aircraft
planned for the flight is a performance class B
180) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome
aeroplane, it will be able, throughout its flight route or
Operating Minima), the lowest minima to be used by an
its alternate route scheduled from this initial route, to
operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are :
reach a climb rate of at least :
A MDH=600 ft and visibility=2400 m
A 500 ft/min with one engine inoperative and all the others
operating at maximum continuous power.
B MDH=700 ft and visibility=2600 m
B 300ft/min with all engines operating at maximum continuous
power.
MDH=500 ft and visibility=1600 m
C
300 ft/min with one engine inoperative and all the others
C
D MDH=400 ft and visibility=1500 m
operating at maximum continuous power.
D 500 ft/min with all engines operating at maximum cruise
power.
181) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome
Operationg Minima), an operator must ensure that
system minima for "non-precision approach
procedures", which are based upon the use of ILS
221) The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to :
without glidepath (LLZ only), VOR NDB, SRA, and VDF
are no lower than MDH following value with:
A rules issued by the bordering States (document 6530)
A VOR/DME facility, lowest MDH=300 ft
B rules common to the bordering States, grouped in document
7050 (North Atlantic Ocean Airspace)
B NDB facility, lowest MDH=300 ft
Canadian rules, because this country has the greatest
C
ILS facility without glidepath (localizer) lowest MDH=200 ft
C
surface area of territorial waters in this airspace
D VOR facility, lowest MDH=250 ft
D the ICAO document 7030 (additional regional procedures)
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182) (For this question use annex 071-2083A) 186) Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you
In order to meet the "twin-engine" flight standards should check the :
authorised by the official departments of his company
(1hour 45 minutes flight on 1 engine at an air speed of
A temperature of the hydraulic fluid.
420 kt to reach the alternate aerodromes in still air
conditions), a pilot has to choose an ATC route, in
B pressure of the hydraulic fluid.
Minimum Navigation Performance Specification area,
while at the same time taking the shortest possible time.
pressure of the pneumatic tyres.
C
Given that the three alternate aerodromes taken into
account are SHANNON, SANTA MARIA, ST JOHN
D temperature of the brakes.
TORBAY, the track to be chosen between PARIS and
WASHINGTON will be:
A Track A , time 8 hours 3 minutes.
187) Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop
characterize:
B Track D , time 8 hours 20 minutes.
A an electrical fire.
Track B , time 8 hours 10 minutes.
C
B a plastic fire.
D Track C , time 8 hours 15 minutes.
a fast depressurization.
C
D a slow depressurization.
183) The greatest possibility of ice buildup, while flying
under icing conditions, occurs on :
A The aircraft front areas.
202) A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification
has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle. The
B The upper and lower wingsurfaces.
flight must be planned to take place :
The upper and lower rudder surfaces. A at flight level FL 280 or less.
C
B outside scheduled flight times.
D Only the pitot and static probes.
at a Mach number of 0.70 or less.
C
184) Posit :
D at a constant airspeed of 480 kt.
g, the longitude difference
Lm, the average latitude
Lo, the latitude of the tangent
189) An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire
shut off-handle.
The correct formula of the conversion angle applied,
The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:
during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to :
A the fire-extinguisher has been triggered.
A g/2.sin Lm
B all the fire-extinguishers connected to this engine have been
B 15°/h.sin Lm
triggered.
g.sin Lm
C fire is no longer detected.
C
D g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)
D the fire shut-off handle has been pulled.
185) Which one of the following sets of conditions is most
224) For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the
likely to attract birds to an aerodrome ?
ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum
time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg and
A the extraction of minerals such as sand and gravel more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy
aeroplane on the approach to the same runway ?
B a refuse tip in close proximity
A 11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes
mowing and maintaining the grass long
C
B 7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes
D a modern sewage tip in close proximity
9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes
C
D 9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes
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191) Supplemental oxygen is used to : 195) In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) area, a pilot should first of all take the
following action in the event of a failure of the last
A protect a crew who fights a fire
inertial navigation system:
B provide with oxygen passengers who might require it,
A request authorization from Control to track another aircraft.
following a cabin depressurisation
B set a different heading approximately 45° from the previous
assist a passenger with breathing disorders
C
one.
D provide people on board with oxygen during a cabin
immediately climb or descent 1 000 ft.
C
depressurisation
D notify Control and wait for a reply within a reasonable time.
192) The minimum time track is a track defined for :
196) The abbreviation MNPS means :
A aircraft flying in MNPS airspace
A Main Navigation Performance Specification
B a given travel
B Maximum Navigation Performance Specification
a period of 12 hours
C
Magnetic Navigation Performance Specification
C
D a period of 24 hours
D Minimum Navigation Performance Specification
193) The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:
197) A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach
1. the type and intensity of the showers
followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal
2. the ambient temperature
visibility is higher than or equal to :
3. the relative humidity
4. the direction and speed of the wind
A 1500 m
5. the temperature of the airplane skin
6. the type of fluid, its concentration and temperature
B 2400 m
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
1600 m
C
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
D 3600 m
B 1, 3, 5, 6
198) The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying
2, 3, 4, 5
C
in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is :
D 1, 2, 4, 6
A 20 minutes.
B 10 minutes.
194) A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane
fails while taxiing to the holding point. The reference
5 minutes.
C
document you use in the first place to decide on the
procedure to follow is:
D 15 minutes.
A the minimum equipment list.
199) When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the
B the JAR OPS.
aircraft tends :
the flight record.
C
A to climb or descend, depending on the gust strength
D the operation manual's chapter "Abnormal and Emergency
B to descend
Procedures".
to climb
C
D not to change its trajectory
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188) In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when: 249) Following take-off, the noise abatement climb
procedures specified by the operator is :
A surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.
A different according to airports and airplane types.
B it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.
B for the same airplane type, the same for all airports.
it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.
C
for all airplane types, the same for a specific airport.
C
D its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not
D different for a same airplane type, according to airports.
give it a shiny appearance.
250) The correct statement about extinguishing agents on
257) We would know that the automatic pressurization
board aeroplanes is :
system has malfunctioned if :
A A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit
1. threre is a change in environnemental sounds.
fire.
2. the cabin barometer indicates a sharp rise.
3. the differential pressure between the exterior and the
B Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished
interior becomes equal.
by using carbon dioxide.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in
C
is :
aeroplanes.
A 1,2.
D Water may only be used for minor fires.
B 1,3.
251) To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a
2,3.
C
larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuver :
D 1,2,3.
A Above and upwind from the larger aircraft
B Above and downwind from the larger aircraft
247) Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a
runway in metres. If this is less than the published
Below and downwind from the larger aircraft
C
length, how is this reported :
D Below and upwind from the larger aircraft
A it is not reported
B by a four figure group added to item D, which gives the
lenght in metres 252) A polar track is a track part of which is included in an
area where the horizontal component of the earth
as a percentage of the total lenght of the runway available as magnetic field is less than :
C
the final item of a SNOWTAM
A 10 micro-tesla
D in plain language at item T (the final paragraph) of a
SNOWTAM
B 6 micro-tesla
17 micro-tesla
C
248) If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro
compass (which is assumed to be operating correctly)
D 38 micro tesla
and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device which
is properly corrected by astronomical precession, the
course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is
a:
A great circle.
B rhumb line.
curve of some type or other.
C
D spherical flight segment.
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253) In accordance with (ICAO) DOC 8168 - OPS, noise 244) The validity period of a flight track system organized in
preferential routes are established to ensure that MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification)
departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying airspace during an Eastbound flight normally is :
noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as
far as practicable. In establishing noise preferential
A 01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
routes :
B 10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
A no turns should be required coincident with a reduction of
power associated with a noise abatement procedure.
11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
C
B turns during take-off and climb should not be required
D 00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
unless the aeroplane has reached and can maintain
throughout the turn a height of no less than 100 m above
terrain and the highest obstacle.
258) The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the
turns during take-off and climb should not be required
C
equipment on which certain in-flight failures can be
unless the bank angle for turns is limited to 20° (climbing at
allowed and the conditions under which this allowance
V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)
can be accepted . The Mel is drawn up by :
D turns during take-off and climb should not be required
A the operator and may be less restrictive than the Master
unless the bank angle for turns is limited to 28° (climbing at
Minimum equipment List (MMEL)
V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)
B the manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the
Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)
254) The application of a type II de-icing fluid on an aircraft
on ground will provide a : the operator and may be more restrictive than the Master
C
Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)
A certain time of protection independent of the outside
D the manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the
temperature.
Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL)
B 3 hours protection time.
certain time of protection depending on its concentration.
C 259) During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two
stages, the waiting time starts:
D 24 hours protection time.
A at the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
B a the end of the first stage (de-icing stage).
222) Which one of the following factors should prevent a
runway being chosen as the preferential landing runway
at the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
C
for noise abatement purposes in visual meteorological
condition (VMC) ?
D at the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage).
A It has a tail wind component of any value
B It has a tail wind component of 3 kts and a cross wind,
260) In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered wet when:
including gusts, of 12 kt
1. it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or
slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3
It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance
C
mm of water.
2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify
D Cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt
its colour but does not give it a shiny appearance.
3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it
reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of
water.
256) In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a
4. it bears stagnant sheets of water.
bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
any fuel considerations:
is:
A you climb to the maximum flight level which does not need
A 1, 2, 3
the use of pressurization.
B 1, 2
B you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated
cabin altitude and keep the airplane in a clean configuration
until the final approach. 4
C
you dexcend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated
C
D 1, 3
cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take
preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach
configuration.
D you carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety
altitude.
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261) During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 266) In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions,
(FL 370), your first action will be : the captain must check that:
A to warn the ATC A possible ice accretions do not cause to exceed weight and
balance limits.
B to comfort your passengers
B external surfaces are free from any ice accretion which may
impede the airplane performance and manoeuvrability,
to put on the oxygen mask
C
except within the limits specified by the flight manual.
D to set the transponder to 7700
external surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater
C
than 5 mm.
D external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid.
262) In the Area where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical
separation that can be applied between FL 290 and
FL410 inclusive is :
255) The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned
A 2000ft
to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not be less
than :
B 1 500 ft
A 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type
of aircraft during the last 90 days
1 000 ft
C
B 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type
D 500 ft
of aircraft during the last 6 months
3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type
C
of aircraft during the last 6 months
263) The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the
generating aircraft is :
D 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type
of aircraft during the last 90 days
A Large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration
B Small, light, at low speed in clean configuration
235) Who shall provide the flight operations personal with a
operations manual and also issue the amendments to
Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration
C
keep it up to date?
D Large, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration
A Aircraft producer.
B Owner of the aircraft.
264) An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure
must be anti-icing fluid free at the latest when :
ATS authority of the state of registry.
C
A releasing the brakes in order to take-off.
D Aircraft operator.
B it is implementing its own anti-icing devices.
356) Penetration into the North Atlantic ocean airspace is :
leaving the icing zone.
C
D it is rotating (before taking-off).
A subject to a clearance only if the flight route is changed
B subject to a mandatory clearance
265) In compliance with the JAR OPS, in order to carry
hazardous materials on board a public transport subject to an optional clearance depending on the type of
C
airplane, they must be accompanied with a : flight (scheduled or not)
D not subject to a clearance, since the flight is already
A representative of the company owning the materials.
controlled
B specialized handling employee.
system to warn the crew in case of a leak or of an abnormal
C
increase in temperature.
D transport document for hazardous materials.
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Domande Ops Procedures
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225) Who makes sure that the air transportation of an item of 229) From the following list :
dangerous goods is not prohibited? 1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from
fire hazard
2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane
A The operator.
3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane
4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect
B It is not specified.
the controllability of the aeroplane.
Which of the above are requirements that must be
The shipper when completing the shipper's declaration for
C
shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests :
dangerous goods.
A 1,3 and 4
D The captain, always using the list of prohibited aircraft items.
B 1 and 4
226) When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just
2 and 3
C
landed, you should take-off :
D 1,2,3 and 4
A in front of the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched
down.
B at the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down
230) A class A fire is a fire of:
and on the wind side of the runway .
at the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched the A metal or gas or chemical (special fires)
C
ground and on the underwind side of the runway .
B solid material, generally of organic nature
D beyond the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched
down.
liquid or liquefiable solid
C
D electrical origin
227) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure
that all relevant operational and technical information
for a individual flight is preserved on ground for a
predetermined period of time. Consequently, if 231) The wake turbulence caused by an aircraft is mainly the
result of:
practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be
retained, during at least :
1. An aerodynamical effect (wing tip vortices).
2. The engines action (propellers rotation or engine gas
A 15 months
exhausts).
3. The importance of the drag devices (size of the
B 24 months
landing gear, of the flaps, etc.).
3 months
C
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
D 12 months
A 1.
B 3.
228) Following an act of unlawful interference on board an
aeroplane, to whom the commander should submit a
report of the act to :
2 and 3.
C
A the Autority of the State of the operator only
D 1, 2 and 3.
B the Authority of the State within which the aeroplane is
operating at the time of the unlawful interference
232) You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for:
both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the
C
1. a paper fire
operator
2. a plastic fire
3. a hydrocarbon fire
D the local authority only
4. an electrical fire
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
A 1, 4
B 1, 2, 3, 4
1, 2, 3
C
D 2, 3
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246) The coverage angle of the regulatory white position 237) An aircraft which experiencies a headwind of 40 kt while
lights, continuously lit in flight and located at the rear of making its way towards the centre of a microburst may
the aircraft, is : expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a
windshear of :
A 220°
A 80 kt.
B 140°
B 40 kt.
110°
C
60 kt.
C
D 70°
D 20 kt.
234) A list of dangerous goods, which may not be
transported by air, can be found in : 238) The wake turbulence:
A the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods.
A starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when
rectracting the drag devices.
B the technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous
goods by air.
B starts during the rotation and stops as soon as the airplane's
wheels touch the ground.
Annex 18 to the Chicago convention.
C
starts as soon as the aeroplane is running for take-off and
C
D Annex 6 to the Chicago Convention.
stops as soon as it has come to a stop at landing.
D starts when the airplane reaches a height of 300 ft above the
ground and stops when it crosses this height before landing.
245) An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to
continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control
clearance (due to degradation of navigational
239) An air traffic unit may request the aircraft to report
performance requirements), but is able to maintain its
position when flying east-west south of 70°N between
assigned level, and due to a total loss of
5°W and 65°W, every:
communications capability, could not obtain a revised
clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its
assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to A 10° of longitude.
the right or left whenever this is possible, and the
subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain
B 5° of longitude.
in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM
from its assigned route and climb or descend 500 ft, if :
20° of longitude.
C
A above FL 410
D 15° of longitude.
B at FL 430
240) On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel
below FL 410
C
with the Greenwich meridian in the direction of the true
North pole, the "true" orientation of the great circle
D at FL 410
linking point 62°N 010°E to point 66°N 050°W is 305°. The
grid route at the starting point of this great circle is :
236) For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation A 301°.
stage, the landing distance on at alternate aerodrome
shall be less than the available landing distance
B 292°.
multiplied by a factor of :
295°.
C
A 0.8
D 298°.
B 0.7
0.6
C
D 0.5
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241) When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind 233) For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than
coming from the left side, you adopt a path, whenever 44 passengers, it must be shown by actual
possible : demonstration that the maximum seating capacity,
including the required number of crew members, can be
evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in :
A distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the right
of and under its path.
A 60 seconds
B identical to the one of the preceding airplane.
B 90 seconds
distinct form the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it
C
and under its path.
132 seconds
C
D distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the left
D 120 seconds
of and above its path.
242) For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the
optimum altitude and the lock-on altitude increase. The
most cost-effective flight plan will consist of chosing
cruising levels which increase during the flight in order
to fly :
A about the lock-on altitude
B between the lock-on altitude and the optimum altitude
just below the optimum altitude
C
D about the optimum altitude
243) A minimum time track is a :
A spherical capable flight segment
B track determined according to weather conditions
great circle track
C
D rhumb line
223) A slow decompression may be caused by:
1. a slight airtightness defect
2. a bad functioning of the pressurization
3. the loss of a window
4. the loss of a door
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
A 3, 4
B 1, 2, 3
1, 2
C
D 1, 2, 3, 4
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