Name:…………………………………………………………..……Group 1

27.10.2006 (5 year program of stomatology studies-III year)

1. A 28-year-old menstruating woman appeared in the emergency room with the following signs and symptoms:

fever, 104°F (40°C); WBC, 16,000/µl; blood pressure, 90/65 mmHg; a scarlatiniform rash on her trunk, palms, and

soles; extreme fatigue; vomiting; and diarrhea. Culture of the menstrual fluid in the case cited would most likely

reveal a predominance of which of the following?

a) C. perfringens

b) G. vaginalis

c) S. aureus

d) S. epidermidis

2. After extraction of a wisdom tooth, an 18-year-old male student was diagnosed as having subacute bacterial

endocarditis. He has a congential heart disease that has been under control.

Which of the following is the most likely organism causing his infection?

a) S. epidermidis

b) S. pneumoniae

c) Streptococcus viridans

d) E. faecalis

3. A person who contracts gonorrhea is most likely to have acquired it via which of the following?

a) Genital tract

b) Nasal tract

c) Respiratory tract

d) Skin

4. Streptococcus pyogenes is a toxigenic bacterium causing a variety of diseases. Which of the following statements

best characterizes this organism?

a) It produces a toxin that blocks protein synthesis in an infected cell and carries a lytic bacteriophage that produces the

genetic information for toxin production

b) It secretes an erythrogenic toxin that causes the characteristic signs of scarlet fever

c) It secretes an exotoxin that has been called “verotoxin” and “Shiga-like toxin; infection is mediated by specific

attachment to mucosal membranes

d) It has capsules of polyglutamic acid, which is toxic when injected into rabbits

5. The typical staphylococcal skin lesions include:

a) urticaria

b) abscesses and furuncles

c) rash

d) indurated chancre

6. MRSA denotes:

a) staphylococci not stained by Gram technique

b) methycillin resistant S.aureus

c) encapsulating S.aureus

d) S.epidermidis strains resistant to antibiotics

7. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) is caused by:

a) S. aureus

b) S. pyogenes

c) N. meningitidis

d) N. gonorrheoeae

8. Streptococcus mutans is best described by which of the following statements?

a) an anaerobic, filamentous bacterium that often causes cervicofacial osteomyelitis

b) a -hemolytic organism that causes a diffuse, rapidly spreading cellulitis

c) a facultative anaerobe that is highly cariogenic and sticks to teeth by synthesis of a dextran

d) a facultative anaerobe that often inhabits the buccal mucosa early in a neonate's life and can cause bacterial endocarditis

9. Which of the following is the predominant flora of the mouth that is the major cause of dental caries?

a) -hemolytic streptococci

b) E. coli

c) Lactobacillus

d) S. epidermidis

10. There are a variety of “unusual” bacteria that infect humans. While rare, disease caused by these

microorganisms is serious and occasionally difficult to identify. Which of the following statements best

characterizes Moraxella (Branhamella) catarrhalis?

a) a gram-negative, pleomorphic rod that can cause endocarditis

b) a gram-negative rod, fusiform-shaped, that is associated with periodontal disease but may cause sepsis

c) the causative agent of rat-bite fever

d) the causative agent of sinusitis, bronchitis, and pneumonia

Name:…………………………………………………………………..……Group 2

27.10.2006 (5 year program of stomatology studies-III year)

1. The typical staphylococcal skin lesions include:

a) urticaria

b) abscesses and furuncles

c) rash

d) indurated chancre

2. To isolate specific bacteria from clinical specimens, it is necessary to use a variety of artificial media, some of

which are selective, others of which are nonselective. N. gonorrhoeae is a fastidious pathogen found in sites often

contaminated with normal flora. What is the best medium for isolation?

a) Löwenstein-Jensen medium

b) Sheep blood agar

c) Thayer-Martin agar

d) Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose medium

3. MRSA denotes:

a) staphylococci not stained by Gram technique

b) methycillin resistant S.aureus

c) encapsulating S.aureus

d) S.epidermidis strains resistant to antibiotics

4. In order to recognize abnormal bacteria, it is necessary to know which bacteria are predominant normal flora of

certain body sites. Which of the following is the predominant organism on skin commonly seen as a blood culture

contaminant?

a) -hemolytic streptococci

b) E. coli

c) Lactobacillus

d) S. epidermidis

5. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) is caused by:

a) S. aureus

b) S. pyogenes

c) N. meningitidis

d) N. gonorrheoeae

6. Streptococcus mutans is best described by which of the following statements?

a) A -hemolytic organism that causes a diffuse, rapidly spreading cellulitis

b) A facultative anaerobe that is highly cariogenic and sticks to teeth by synthesis of a dextran

c) A facultative anaerobe that often inhabits the buccal mucosa early in a neonate's life and can cause bacterial endocarditis

d) A facultatively anaerobic, rod-shaped bacterium that sticks to teeth and is cariogenic

7. Streptococcus mutans is best described by which of the following statements?

a) an anaerobic, filamentous bacterium that often causes cervicofacial osteomyelitis

b) a -hemolytic organism that causes a diffuse, rapidly spreading cellulitis

c) a facultative anaerobe that is highly cariogenic and sticks to teeth by synthesis of a dextran

d) a facultative anaerobe that often inhabits the buccal mucosa early in a neonate's life and can cause bacterial endocarditis

8. Which of the following is the predominant flora of the mouth that is the major cause of dental caries?

a) -hemolytic streptococci

b) E. coli

c) Lactobacillus

d) S. epidermidis

9. There are a variety of “unusual” bacteria that infect humans. While rare, disease caused by these microorganisms

is serious and occasionally difficult to identify. Which of the following statements best characterizes Moraxella

(Branhamella) catarrhalis?

a) a gram-negative, pleomorphic rod that can cause endocarditis

b) a gram-negative rod, fusiform-shaped, that is associated with periodontal disease but may cause sepsis

c) the causative agent of rat-bite fever

d) the causative agent of sinusitis, bronchitis, and pneumonia

10. Streptococcus pyogenes is a toxigenic bacterium causing a variety of diseases. Which of the following statements best characterizes this organism?

a) It produces a toxin that blocks protein synthesis in an infected cell and carries a lytic bacteriophage that produces the genetic information for toxin production

b) It secretes an erythrogenic toxin that causes the characteristic signs of scarlet fever

c) It secretes an exotoxin that has been called “verotoxin” and “Shiga-like toxin; infection is mediated by specific attachment to mucosal membranes

d) It has capsules of polyglutamic acid, which is toxic when injected into rabbits

Name:……………………………………………….……………..……Group 1

10.11.2006r.

1.Treatment of Pasteurella multocida infections:

a) is not required

b) includes penicillin

c) includes tetracyclines

d) includes chinolones

2. Endotoxic shock, linked to the presence of toxic LPS in the cell wall, most frequently is induced by:

a) E.coli

b) Klebsiella spp.

c) Enterococcus spp.

d) Proteus spp.

3. Typical signs of bubonic plague include:

a) pneumonia

b) exanthema

c) hepatomegaly

d) lymphadenitis (buboes)

4. The Kauffmann - white's scheme includes classification of serotypes of:

a) Salmonella spp.

b) Shigella spp.

c) E. coli

d) Proteus spp.

5. H.influenzae capsule type b consists of:

a) lipopolysaccharides (LPS)

b) polyribose - ribitol phosphate (PRP)

c) outer membrane protein (OMP)

d) lipooligosaccharide (LOS)

6. A 2-year-old infant is brought to the emergency room with hemolytic uremic syndrom (HUS) and thrombocytopenia. Which one of the following bacteria would most likely be isolated from a stool specimen?

a) Salmonella enteritidis

b) E. coli O₁₅₇ H₇

c) Shigella flexneri

d) Klebsiella pneumoniae

7. Etiologic agent of meningitis in infants and children aged 2 months to 5 years:

a) Haemophilus influenzae type b

b) Streptococcus pneumoniae

c) Neisseria meningitidis

d) All of the above

8. Shigellosis is common in travelers to developing countries. Infection is commonly acquired through which of the following routes?

a) gastrointestinal tract

b) genital tract

c) skin

d) respiratory tract

9. Sings of H.ducreyi (chancroid or soft charice) include:

a) vomiting

b) stiff neck

c) diarrhea

d) papule and friable ulcer

10. Which one of the following E. coli types is characterized by the presence of LT (heat-labile) and ST (heat-stable) enterotoxins.

a) Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)

b) Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)

c) Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)

d) Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)

Name:………………………………………………..………..……Group 2

10.11.2006

1.Development of plague epidemics is related to:

a) coagulase production by Y.pestis

b) production of fibrinolysin by Y.pestis

c) both of the above

d) none of the above

2. E. coli O157H7 is a newsworthy microorganism that has been isolated from foods, with increasing frequency. Its characteristic biology is best described by which of the following statements?

a) It produces protein toxin that cause severe spasmodic cough, usually in children

b) It produces a toxin that blocks protein synthesis in an infected cell

c) It secretes an exotoxin that has been called “verotoxin” and “Shiga-like toxin”

d) It secretes an erythrogenic toxin that causes the characteristic signs of scarlet fever

3. One can get infected with brucellosis due to consumption of:

a) boiled meat

b) raw milk

c) fruit

d) water

4. Which of the following tests would be most useful to differentiate Shigella flexneri from

Shigella boydii?

a) fermentation of lactose

b) motility

c) agglutination in specific antisera

d) production of H₂S

5. Clinical signs of brucellosis include:

a) undulant fever

b) papular eruption

c) throat pains

d) conjunctivitis

6. Local lesions induced by Salmonella typhi are localized mainly in:

a) large intestine

b) small intestine

c) kidneys

d) liver

7. Acellular B.pertussis vaccine contains:

a) LPS

b) polysaccharide capsule

c) tracheal cytotoxin

d) FHA, pertactin, pertussis toxoid

8. Which of the following is most likely to cause urinary tract infections:

a) Listeria monocytogenes

b) Streptococcus pneumoniae

c) Klebsiella spp.

d) Escherichia coli

9. Which of the following bacteria induce lesions to ciliated epithelial cells:

a) H.influenzae

b) P.aeruginosa

c) B.pertussis

d) S.aureus

10. Diarrhea in travelers is commonly cause by

a) Proteus vulgaris

b) Klebsiella pneumoniae

c) ETEC (enterotoxigenic E. coli)

d) EPEC (enteropathogenic E. coli)

Name:………………………………………………………………Group 1

24.11.2006 (5 year program of stomatology studies-III year)

1. The main factor responsible for lesions in diphtheria involves:

a) exotoxin

b) endotoxin

c) intracellular growth of bacteria

d) all of the above

2. In treatment of diphtheria it is most important to administer:

a) antitoxin

b) anatoxin

c) antibiotics

d) sulphonamides

3. Anti-diphtheria vaccine contains:

a) anatoxin

b) antitoxin

c) atenuated bacteria

d) inactivated bacteria

4. The main factor responsible for virulence of L.monocytogenes involves:

a) listeriolysin

b) protein A

c) enterotoxin

d) presence of cilia

5. Legionella pneumophila rods can be cultured on:

a) agar medium enriched with yeast extract and cystein

b) medium containing 10% sheep blood

c) Mueller-Hinton medium

d) only in tissue cultures

6. Ziehl-Neelsen technique is used to stain:

a) Mycobacterium avium complex

b) Mycobacterium bovis

c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

d) all of the above

7. Mycobacterium tuberculosis induces:

a) tuberculosis of intestines

b) pulmonary tuberculosis

c) tuberculosis of bones

d) all of the above

8. Positive tuberculin test depends on:

a) cell mediated immunity against Mycobacterium tuberculosis

b) humoral immunity

c) both types of the immune response

d) none of the above

9. Lövenstein-Jensen medium permits to culture:

a) Mycobacterium leprae

b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

c) both of the above

d) none of the above

10. Mycobacterium leprae induces:

a) skin tuberculosis

b) leprosy

c) pulmonary tuberculosis

d) intestinal tuberculosis

Name:………………………………………………………………Group 2

24.11.2006 (5 year program of stomatology studies-III year)

1. Mycobacterium spp. belong to:

a) rapidly growing bacteria

b) slowly growing bacteria

c) microaerophilic bacteria

d) anaerobic bacteria

2. Diphtheria prevention includes:

a) use of vaccines

b) administration of antibiotics

c) treatment of the carriers

d) all of the above

3. Infection with diphtheria occurs via:

a) respiratory route

b) alimentary route

c) urinary tract

d) venereal route

4. Infections with L.monocytogenes may develop as:

a) gastric ulcers

b) alimentary infections

c) venereal diseases

d) all of the above

5. Listeria monocytogenes are:

a) ciliated G+ rods

b) G+ rods with no cilia

c) ciliated G- rods

d) G- rods with no cilia

6. Development of clinical signs/symptoms of L.pneumophila induced disease is promoted by:

a) generalised immune deficit

b) decreased local immunity in lungs due to, e.g., smoking of cigarettes

c) both of the above

d) none of the above

7. Test with tuberculin establishes diagnosis of infection with:

a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

b) Mycobacterium leprae

c) Mycobacterium avium

d) all of the above

8. Test with lepromin establishes diagnosis of infection with:

a) Mycobacterium avium

b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

c) Mycobacterium bovis

d) Mycobacterium leprae

9. Positive niacin test is diagnostic of:

a) Mycobacterium avium

b) Mycobacterium leprae

c) Mycobacterium bovis

d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

10. In humans, tuberculosis is induced by:

a) Mycobacterium avium

b) Mycobacterium microti

c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

d) Mycobacterium leprae

Name:………………………………………………………………Group ……………..

08.12.2006 (5 year program of stomatology studies-III year)

1. Infection with anthrax develops:

a) through wounds

b) per os

c) through respiratory tract

d) all the above

2. The most frequent C.perfringens serotype isolated from patients involves:

a) serotype B

b) serotype A

c) serotype D

d) serotype E

3. In studies on intestinal disturbances induced by C.difficile the highest diagnostic value can be related with:

a) cultures of C.difficile

b) demonstration of toxin A presence

c) demonstration of toxin B presence

d) all the above positive results show the same diagnostic value

4. Anti-tetanic vaccine contains:

a) attenuated bacilli of tetanus

b) tetanic anatoxin

c) killed vegetative forms of tetanus bacteria

d) killed spores of tetanic bacteria

5. Campylobacter is transmitted to man via:

a) milk and meat products

b) tick vector

c) sexual contact

d) broken skin

6. Cholera develop due to :

a) production of cholera toxin

b) adherence of bacteria to cells of small intestine epithelium

c) both of the above

d) none of the above

7. Which of the following is not a tick born disease:

a) Lyme disease

b) Relapsing fever caused by Borrelia recurentis

c) Campylobacteriosis

d) Tularemia

8. What is the cause of erythema chronicum migrans, or ECM?

a) hypersensivity reaction to a fire and bite

b) a bite by a tick carrying Borrelia burgdorferi at the site of ECM

c) contact with a rabbit infected with Francisella tularensis

d) a bit by a flea carrying Yersinia pestis

9. A 22-year-old male reports to the physician complaining of a two-week history of a sore on his penis. Physical examination shows a firm, raised, red, nontender chancre midway between the basis and gland of the penis. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the physician?

a) swab the chancre and culture on a selective medium

b) swab the chancre and perform a Gram stain

c) perform FTA-ABS

d) perform a dark-field examination on a swab of the active lesion

10. Clostridium perfringens infections are commonly associated with:

a) contamination of wounds

b) antibiotic treatment

c) immunosuppression

d) consumption of water contaminated with sewage

Name:………………………………………………………………Group ……………..

12.01.2007 (5 year program of stomatology studies-III year)

1. A predisposing factor in pseudomembranous colitis (PMC) is:

1. clindamycin treatment

2. neonatal age

3. high dairy products diet

4. old age ( more than sixty years of age)

2. Treponema pallidum can be identified from a syphilitic lesion

(either primary or secondary stage) by:

a) culture on selective medium

b) immunofluorescent stain of smear made from the active lesion

c) Gram stain

d) Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) assay

3. Which laboratory test is the most useful for diagnosis of Lyme Disease?

a) blood culture on sheep blood agar plate

b) detection of IgM/IgG antibodies to the spirochete

c) detection of specific antibody to Iodex tick

d) documentation of fever and arthritis

4. Which of the following is usually transmitted by contaminated water?

a) Treponema pallidum

b) Leptospira interrogans

c) Borrelia burgdorferi

d) none of the above

5. The probable cause for the relapsing nature of relapsing fever caused by Borrelia recurentis is:

a) the sequential apperance of new antibiotic resistant variants

b) successive apperance of antigenic variants

c) organisms that survive and propagate after spirochete-induced fever

d) periodic spore dormancy and activation

6. A 23-years-old man has a diffuse palmar and plantar rash accompanied by fever and headache, proceded 4 weeks before by a painless ulcer on his penis. Which test can diagnose this patient's disease?

a) blood culture

b) dark field microscopy

c) FTA-ABS

d) Gram stain

7. B.anthracis toxin acts on:

a) gastrointestinal system

b) nervous system

c) the heart and circulation

d) respiratory system

8. C.tetani represents a microbe showing:

a) high invasiveness

b) high toxicity

c) invasiveness and toxicity

d) low toxicity

9. Invasion with C.botulinum develops:

1. per os

2. through the wounds

3. per os and sometimes through the wounds

4. through the intrauterine infection

10. Surgical instruments are boiled for 10 minutes in saline solution containing Escherichia coli, Salmonella typhi, Staphyloccocus aureus and Bacillus cereus. Which one of the following organisms is most likely to survive this procedure

1. E. coli

2. B. cereus

3. S. typhi

4. S. aureus

Name:………………………………………..……Group 1

08.12.2006

1. In the same patient, which one of the following test combinations for syphilis is most appropriate?

a) FTA-ABS (IgG)/FTA-ABS (IgM)

b) RPR/culture of the lesion

c) RPP/FTA-ABS

d) VDRL/RPR

2. Rickettsiae:

a) have eukaryotic-type cell organization

b) cause contagious infections because they are disseminated by respiratory droplets

c) are clinically sensitive to penicillin

d) generally invade the endothelial lining of capillarieas, causing small hemorrhages

3. Which of the following laboratory tests for Mycoplasma pneumoniae is the most specific and sensitive:

a) cold agglutinin

b) complement fixation test

c) Gram stain

d) a DNA probe to the Mycoplasma pneumoniae 16S ribosomal RNA

4. A college student visits the outpatient clinic, complaining of headache, malaise developing over several days, and a hacking nonproductive cough. He is mildly febrile. A chest x-ray shows a greater degree of bronchopulmonary infiltration than suggested by the physical findings:

a) Chlamydophila pneumoniae

b) Haemophilus influenzae

c) Chlamydophila psittaci

d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

5. A 25-year-old medical student presented with a burst appendix. A peritoneal infection developed, despite prompt removal of the organ and extensive flushing of the peritoneal cavity. An isolate from a pus culture was a gram-negative rod identified as Bacteroides fragilis. Anaerobic infection with B.fragilis is characterized by which one of the following?

a) A black exudate in the wound

b) A foul-smelling discharge

c) A heme-pigmented colony formation

d) Severe neurologic symptoms

6. A patient was hospitalized after an automobile accident. The wounds became infected and the patient was treated with tobramycin, carbenicillin, and clindamycin. Five days after antibiotic therapy was initiated, the patient developed severe diarrhea and pseudomembranous enterocolitis. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea and the more serious pseudomembranous enterocolitis can be caused by which of the following organisms?

a) B.fragilis

b) Clostridium difficile

c) Clostridium perfringens

d) Clostridium sordellii

7. Which of the following microorganism is usually transmittedy by contaminated water

a) Borrelia recurrentis

b) Leptospira interrogans

c) Treponema pallidum

d) Borrelia burgdorferi

8. The probable cause for the relapsing nature of relapsing fever caused by Borrelia recurrentis is:

a) the sequential appearance of new antibiotic resistant variants

b) successive appearance of new antigenic variants

c) appearance ability to activate of dormancy spores

d) periodic hormonal fluctuations in the host

9. Which of the following is the most effective noninvasive test for the diagnosing of Helicobacter infection?

a) culturing of stomach biopsy samples

b) detection of H.pylori antigen in stool

c) rapid urease test

d) culturing of stool samples

10. Cholera develop due to:

a) production of cholera toxin

b) adherence of bacteria to cells of small intestine epithelium

c) both of the above

d) genetical predisposition of the host

Name:………………………………………..……Group 2

08.12.2006

1.A 22 year male presents to his physician complaining of a 21 days history of a ulcer on his penis. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the physician?

a) test a serum sample (VDRL, FTA-ABS)

b) swab the chancre and culture

c) swab the chancre and perform a Gram-stain

d) perform a dark field examination on a swab of the active lesion

2. A 30-year-old woman complained of unrelenting headache, accompanied by fever, chills, and malaise. After two to four days, a dry cough developed. Chest X-rays reveal a patchy, diffuse bronchopneumonia involving both lobes. Her white cell count was not elevated. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Legionellosis

b) infection with Streptococcus pneumoniae

c) infection with Haemophilus influenzae

d) infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae

3. Which one of the following most correctly describes Rickettsia rickettsii:

a) is sensitive to tetracyclines

b) infects red blood cells, resulting in hemolysis and production of rash

c) is spread by aerosol droplets

d) diagnosis is made by Gram stain of punch biopsies from areas of rash

4. What organism causes trachoma:

a) Chlamydophila psittaci

b) Chlamydia trachomatis

c) Chlamydophila pneumoniae

d) Coxiella burnetii

5. Which of the following pairs of organisms can be routinely responsible for food poisoning?

a) Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus anthracis

b) C.difficile and C.botulinum

c) C.perfringens and Bacillus cereus

d) Clostridium tetani and B.anthracis

6. Antibiotic therapy is a critical step in the management of patients infected with each of the following microorganisms except for one. What is the exception?

a) C. botulinum

b) C.difficile

c) C.perfringens

d) C.tetani

7. Which of the following diseases is not a tick-born disease

a) Lyme disease

b) Relapsing fever

c) Tularemia

d) Leptospirosis

8. Which laboratory test is the most useful for diagnosis of Lyme disease

a) culture on blood agar

b) detection of IgM/IgG antibodies to spirochetes

c) swab from erythrema migrans stained with Gram method

d) VDRL - assay

9. In the treatment of H. pylori infection following antibiotics may be used:

a) amoxicillin

b) clarythromycin

c) metronidazol

d) all the above

10. Which of the following statements best desribes C.jejuni?

a) cause of gastroenteritis, reservoir in birds and animal, can grow at 42 C

b) only human pathogen, causes gastrointestinal diseases primarily from ingestion of seafood

c) human pathogen, produces heat-labile, extracellular toxin

d) have three serotypes - Ogawa, Inaba, Hikojima

Group 1

Name ………………………………………………………………….

12.01.2006r.

1. A 19- year-old college student presented at the student health clinic complaining of sore throat, fever, swollen neck lymph nodes, and malaise of several days. Viral capsid antibody (IgM) tested positive, indicating infectious mononucleosis. This potentially debilitating viral disorder is characterized by which of the following statements?

1. It is caused by a rhabdovirus

2. It is most prevalent in children less than 14 years old

3. Ribavirin is the treatment of choice

4. The causative pathogen is an Epstein- Barr virus

2. An elderly male patient with known chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) status suddenly presents with acute hepatitis episodes. Serology confirms HDV co-infection. Which one of the following describe the delta agent?

1. A hepatitis B mutant

2. A defective RNA virus

3. An incomplete hepatitis B virus

4. Hepatitis C

3.A newborn infant presented with disseminated vesicular lesions and seemed not to thrive. Herpes simplex virus was suspected, and laboratory confirmation was desired to justify antiviral chemotherapy. The most sensitive test for the diagnosis of herpes simplex (HSV) meningitis in a newborn infant is which of the following?

1. cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein analysis

2. HSV culture

3. HSV IgG antibody

4. HSV polymerase chain reaction

4. An otherwise healthy 65-years-old male was in a car accident and broke several ribs on the left side. Approximately 12 days later he developed a painful, well-circumscribe vesicular rash over the left rib cage that persisted for several weeks. The rash is most likely due to which of the following?

1. primary infection with herpes B virus

2. primary infection with herpes simplex virus type 1

3. reactivation of latent Epstain-Barr virus

4. reactivation of latent varicella- zoster virus

5. Current approaches to therapy of AIDS involve the use of multiple drugs because:

1. it is not known which one will be effective

2. mutants resistant to any one drug appear rapidly, but the chance for appearance of mutants resistant to all of them is small

3. all inhibit the same step in replication, thereby increasing their effectiveness

4. each tends to neutralize the toxicity of the others

6. From 1918 until 1956 the only subtype of influenza that was seen in humans was H1N1 was replaced by H2N2. This is an example of:

1. viral interference

2. phenotypic mixing

3. antigenic shift

4. antigenic drift

7. Which of the following molecular biology methods is the best for detection of CMV

a) PCR

b) Nested PCR

c) Western blot

d) Northern blot

8. The typical clinical syndrome associated with rotavirus infection is

a) acute gastroenteritis of the young adults

b) acute bronchiolitis of infants

c) acute hepatitis

d) nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea in infants and very young children

9. A hospital worker is found to have hepatitis B surface antigen. Subsequent tests

reveal the presence of e antigen as well. Which of the following best describes the

worker?

a) is infective and has active hepatitis

b) is infective but does not have active hepatitis

c) is not infective

d) has both hepatitis B and hepatitis C

10. An obstetrician sees a pregnant patient who was exposed to rubella virus in the

eighteenth week of pregnancy. She does not remember getting a rubella

vaccination. Which of the following represents the best immediate course of

action?

a) administer rubella immune globulin

b) administer rubella vaccine

c) order a rubella antibody titer to determine immune status

d) terminate the pregnancy

Group 2

Name…………………………………………………………………………….

12.01.2006r.

1. Which of the following molecular biology methods is the best for detection of HIV:

1. PCR

2. Northern blot

3. Southern blot

4. Western blot

2. A nurse develops clinical symptoms consistent with hepatitis. She recall sticking herself with a needle approximately four months before, after drawing blood from a patient. Serologic tests for HBsAg , antibodies to HBsAg, and hepatitis A virus (HAV) are all negative, however, she is positive for IgM core antibody. Which of the following characterizes the current health state of the nurse?

a) does not have hepatitis B

b) has hepatitis A

c) has hepatitis C

d) is in the “window” ( after the disappearance of HBsAg and before the appearance of anti-HBsAg)

3. The “asymptomatic period” following the initial acute disease due to HIV infection is characterized by:

1. high levels of HIV replication in lymphoid tissue

2. high levels of HIV replication in circulating T lymphocytes

3. inability of the immune system to respond to antigenic stimuli

4. high titers of free virus in the blood

1. Within the first years of life, an infant exhibited sever hearing loss, ocular abnormalities, and apparent mental retardation. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection was detected by viral isolation and PCR. Which of the following statements best characterizes CMV?

1. it can be transmitted across the placental barrier

2. while a common infection, CMV is almost always symptomatic

3. the CMV culture can be cultured from red blood cells of infected patients

4. There is no specific therapy for CMV

4. Atypical lymphocytosis is most likely to be found in which one of the following disease?

a) Encephalitis caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV)

b) Chronic hepatitis C

c) Mononucleosis induced by Epstein -Barr virus

d) Rotavirus gastroenteritis

6. The diagnosis of a rotavirus infection:

1. can, in most cases, be made on the basis of the clinical presentation

2. can be made on epidemiologic grounds (for example, if there is an epidemic)

3. can be made (test by which rotavirus antigens) Slidex Rota Kit

4. is routinely made by electron microscopy of suitably treated stool samples

7. Which of the following markers is usually the first viral marker detected after hepatitis B infection?

1. HBcAg

2. HBeAg

3. HBsAg

4. HBeAg

8.Which specimen is best for cytomegalovirus?

1. blood

2. cerebrospinal fluid

3. cervical tissue

4. skin

9.Which one of the following groups of people may be at increased risk for HIV infection?

1. factory workers whose coworkers are HIV- positive

2. foreign service employees who are hospitalized in Zair for bleeding ulcers

3. homosexual females

4. receptionists at a hospital

10.Patients should be vaccinated annually for influenza with which of the following vaccines:

1. immune serum globulin

2. inactivated virus vaccine

3. killed virus vaccine

4. live virus vaccine

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