2005 10 11 131251 set9[1]

Math Section

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Q2:
A researcher plans to identify each participant in a certain medical experiment with a
code consisting of either a single letter or a pair of distinct letters written in alphabetical
order. What is the least number of letters that can be used if there are 12 participants, and
each participant is to receive a different code?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
E. 8

Answer:

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Q8:

The figure above is a cube. What is the measure of angle BEG (not shown)?

A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 75°
E. 90°

Answer:

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Q10:
Max has $125 consisting of bills each worth either $5 or $20. How many bills worth $5
does Max have?

(1) Max has fewer than 5 bills worth $5 each.
(2) Max has more than 5 bills worth $20 each.

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is
sufficient.
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

Answer:

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Q12:
At a sale all books were priced equally and all magazines were priced equally. What was
the price of 3 books and 4 magazines at the sale?

(1) At the sale the price of a book was $1.45 more than the price of a magazine.
(2) At the sale the price of 6 books and 8 magazines was $43.70.

Answer:

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Q13:
How many different 6-letter sequences are there that consist of 1 A, 2 B’

s, and 3 C’

s ?

A. 6
B. 60
C. 120
D. 360
E. 720

Answer:

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Q14:
A pharmaceutical company received $3 million in royalties on the first $20 million in
sales of the generic equivalent of one of its products and then $9 million in royalties on
the next $108 million in sales. By approximately what percent did the ratio of royalties
to sales decrease from the first $20 million in sales to the next $108 million in sales?

A. 8%
B. 15%
C. 45%
D. 52%
E. 56%

Answer:

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Q17:
If n is a positive integer, what is the remainder when (7

4n + 3

)(6

) is divided by 10 ?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. 8

Answer:

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Q19:
Is the integer n odd?

(1) n is divisible by 3.
(2) 2n is divisible by twice as many positive integers as n.

Answer:

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Q22:

NUMBER OF SHIPMENTS OF MANUFACTURED

HOMES IN THE UNITED STATES, 1990-2000

100,000

200,000

300,000

400,000

1990 1992 1994 1996 1998 2000

Year

Number of

Shipments

According to the chart shown, which of the following is closest to the median annual
number of shipments of manufactured homes in the United States for the years from 1990
to 2000, inclusive?

A. 250,000
B. 280,000
C. 310,000
D. 325,000
E. 340,000

Answer:

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Q24:
A certain fruit stand sold apples for $0.70 each and bananas for $0.50 each. If a customer
purchased both apples and bananas from the stand for a total of $6.30, what total number
of apples and bananas did the customer purchase?

A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13
E. 14

Answer:

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Q32:
A certain list consists of 3 different numbers. Does the median of the 3 numbers equal
the average (arithmetic mean) of the 3 numbers?

(1) The range of the 3 numbers is equal to twice the difference between the greatest

number and the median.

(2) The sum of the 3 numbers is equal to 3 times one of the numbers.

Answer:

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Q33:
Working simultaneously and independently at an identical constant rate, 4 machines of a
certain type can produce a total of x units of product P in 6 days. How many of these
machines, working simultaneously and independently at this constant rate, can produce a
total of 3x units of product P in 4 days?

A. 24
B. 18

C. 16
D. 12
E. 8

Answer:

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Q35:
The weights of all dishes of type X are exactly the same, and the weights of all dishes of
type Y are exactly the same. Is the weight of 1 dish of type X less than the weight of 1
dish of type Y ?

(1) The total weight of 3 dishes of type X and 2 dishes of type Y is less than the total

weight of 2 dishes of type X and 4 dishes of type Y.

(2) The total weight of 4 dishes of type X and 3 dishes of type Y is less than the total

weight of 3 dishes of type X and 4 dishes of type Y.

Answer:

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Q36:
If x, y, and z are positive integers, is xz even?

(1) xy is even.
(2) yz is even.

Answer:

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Q37:
A club with a total membership of 30 has formed 3 committees, M, S, and R, which have
8, 12, and 5 members, respectively. If no member of committee M is on either of the
other 2 committees, what is the greatest possible number of members in the club who are
on none of the committees?

A. 5
B. 7
C. 8
D. 10
E. 12

Answer:

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Answers:
BCDBB, CEBCB, DBBED

Verbal Section

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Q1:
A mixture of poems and short fiction, Jean Toomer’

s Cane has been called one of the

three best novels ever written by Black Americans— the others being Richard Wright,
author of Native Son, and Ralph Ellison, author of Invisible Man.

A. Black Americans— the others being Richard Wright, author of Native Son, and

Ralph Ellison, author of Invisible Man

B. Black Americans— including Native Son by Richard Wright and Invisible Man by

Ralph Ellison

C. a Black American— including Richard Wright, author of Native Son, and Ralph

Ellison, author of Invisible Man

D. a Black American— the others being Richard Wright, author of Native Son, and

Ralph Ellison, author of Invisible Man

E. a Black American— the others being Richard Wright’

s Native Son and Ralph

Ellison’s Invisible Man

Answer:

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Q2:
In an attempt to produce premium oysters, a firm in Scotland has developed a prototype
of a submersible oyster farm, sitting below the surface of the ocean, and it provides ideal
conditions for the mollusks’

growth.

A. farm, sitting below the surface of the ocean, and it provides
B. farm, sitting below the surface of the ocean for providing
C. farm that sits below the surface of the ocean and providing
D. farm that sits below the surface of the ocean and provides
E. farm that is sitting below the surface of the ocean and it provides

Answer:

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Q3:
Because of wireless service costs plummeting in the last year, and as mobile phones are
increasingly common, many people now using their mobile phones to make calls across a
wide region at night and on weekends, when numerous wireless companies provide
unlimited airtime for a relatively small monthly fee.

A. Because of wireless service costs plummeting in the last year, and as mobile

phones are increasingly common, many people

B. As the cost of wireless service plummeted in the last year and as mobile phones

became increasingly common, many people

C. In the last year, with the cost of wireless service plummeting, and mobile phones

have become increasingly common, there are many people

D. With the cost of wireless service plummeting in the last year and mobile phones

becoming increasingly common, many people are

E. While the cost of wireless service has plummeted in the last year and mobile

phones are increasingly common, many people are

Answer:

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Q4 to Q7:

By the sixteenth century, the Incas

of South America ruled an empire that

extended along the Pacific coast and

Line

Andean highlands from what is now

(5)

Ecuador to central Chile. While most
of the Incas were self-sufficient
agriculturists, the inhabitants of the
highland basins above 9,000 feet were
constrained by the kinds of crops they

(10)

could cultivate. Whereas 95 percent
of the principal Andean food crops can
be cultivated below 3,000 feet, only
20 percent reproduce readily above
9,000 feet. Given this unequal

(15)

resource distribution, highland Incas
needed access to the products of
lower, warmer climatic zones in order
to enlarge the variety and quantity of
their foodstuffs. In most of the prein-

(20)

dustrial world, the problem of different
resource distribution was resolved by
long-distance trade networks over

which the end consumer exercised

little control. Although the peoples

(25)

of the Andean highlands participated
in such networks, they relied primarily
on the maintenance of autonomous
production forces in as many eco-
logical zones as possible. The

(30)

commodities produced in these
zones were extracted, processed,
and transported entirely by members
of a single group.

This strategy of direct access

(35)

to a maximum number of ecological
zones by a single group is called
vertical economy. Even today,
one can see Andean communities
maintaining use rights simultaneously

(40) to pasturelands above 12,000 feet, to

potato fields in basins over 9,000 feet,

and to plots of warm-land crops in
regions below 6,000 feet. This
strategy has two principal variations.

(45)

The first is “compressed verticality,”
in which a single village resides in
a location that permits easy access
to closely located ecological zones.
Different crop zones or pasturelands

(50)

are located within a few days walk of
the parent community. Community
members may reside temporarily
in one of the lower zones to manage
the extraction of products unavailable

(55)

in the homeland. In the second varia-
tion, called the “vertical archipelago,”
the village exploits resources in widely
dispersed locations, constituting a
series of independent production

(60)

“

islands.” In certain pre-Columbian

Inca societies, groups were sent from
the home territory to establish perma-
nent satellite communities or colonies
in distant tropical forests or coastal

(65)

locations. There the colonists grew
crops and extracted products for their
own use and for transshipment back
to their high-altitude compatriots.
In contrast to the compressed

(70)

verticality system, in this system,
commodities rather than people
circulated through the archipelago.

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Q4:
According to the passage, which of the following is true about the preindustrial long-
distance trade networks mentioned in line 22 ?

A. They were not used extensively in most of the preindustrial world.
B. They were used to some extent by the people of the Andean highlands.

C. They were not an effective means of solving the problem of different resource

distribution.

D. They necessitated the establishment of permanent satellite communities in widely

dispersed locations.

E. They were useful only for the transportation of products from warm climatic

zones.

Answer:

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Q5:
According to the passage, the inhabitants of the Andean highlands resolved the problem
of unequal resource distribution primarily in which of the following ways?

A. Following self-sufficient agricultural practices
B. Increasing commodity production from the ecological zones in the highland

basins

C. Increasing their reliance on long-distance trade networks
D. Establishing satellite communities throughout the Andean highlands
E. Establishing production forces in ecological zones beyond their parent

communities

Answer:

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Q6:
The passage suggests that as a way of addressing the problem of different resource
distribution in the preindustrial world, the practice of vertical economy differed from the
use of long-distance trade networks in that vertical economy allowed

A. commodities to reach the end consumer faster
B. a wide variety of agricultural goods to reach the end consumer
C. a single group to maintain control over the production process
D. greater access to commodities from lower, warmer climatic zones
E. greater use of self-sufficient agricultural techniques

Answer:

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Q7:
The passage suggests that for an Andean highland village attempting to resolve the
problem of unequal resource distribution, the strategy known as compressed verticality
would probably be inappropriate for which of the following situations?

A. The village’

s location is such that it is difficult for the village to participate in

long-distance trade networks.

B. The village does not have the resources to establish permanent satellite

communities in production zones beyond the home community.

C. The warm-land crop regions nearest to the village are all below 6,000 feet.
D. The location of the village does not provide ready access to an adequate variety of

ecological zones.

E. The nearest crop production zones are located below the village, while the nearest

pasturelands are located above the village.

Answer:

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Q8:
Many large department stores in Montalia now provide shopping carts for their customers.
Since customers using shopping carts tend to buy more than those without shopping carts,
most of these stores are experiencing strong sales growth, while most other department
stores are not. Therefore, in order to boost sales, managers of Jerrod’

s, Montalia’

premier department store, are planning to purchase shopping carts and make them
available to the store’

s customers next month.

Which of the following, if true, casts most doubt whether the managers’

plan, if

implemented, will achieve its goal?

A. Since most customers associate shopping carts with low-quality discount stores,

Jerrod’

s high-quality image would likely suffer if shopping carts were introduced.

B. Because the unemployment rate has declined to very low levels, Jerrod’

s now has

to pay significantly higher wages in order to retain its staff.

C. A number of department stores that did not make shopping carts available to their

customers have had to close recently due to falling profits.

D. Shopping carts are not very expensive, but they generally need to be replaced

every few years.

E. Stores that make shopping carts available to their customers usually have to hire

people to retrieve the carts from parking areas.

Answer:

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Q9 to Q11:

Among the myths taken as

fact by the environmental manag-

ers of most corporations is the

Line

belief that environmental regula-

(5)

tions affect all competitors in
a given industry uniformly. In
reality, regulatory costs— and
therefore compliance— fall
unevenly, economically disad-

(10)

vantaging some companies and
benefiting others. For example,
a plant situated near a number
of larger noncompliant competi-
tors is less likely to attract the

(15)

attention of local regulators than
is an isolated plant, and less
attention means lower costs.
Additionally, large plants can

spread compliance costs such

(20)

as waste treatment across a

larger revenue base; on the other

hand, some smaller plants may
not even be subject to certain
provisions such as permit or

(25)

reporting requirements by virtue
of their size. Finally, older pro-
duction technologies often
continue to generate toxic wastes
that were not regulated when the

(30)

technology was first adopted.
New regulations have imposed
extensive compliance costs on

companies still using older
industrial coal-fired burners that

(35) generate high sulfur dioxide and

nitrogen oxide outputs, for
example, whereas new facilities
generally avoid processes that

would create such waste pro-

(40) ducts. By realizing that they

have discretion and that not all
industries are affected equally
by environmental regulation,
environmental managers can

(45)

help their companies to achieve
a competitive edge by anticipat-
ing regulatory pressure and
exploring all possibilities for
addressing how changing regula-

(50)

tions will affect their companies
specifically.

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Q9:
Which of the following hypothetical examples would best illustrate the point the author
makes in lines 40-51 (“By realizing … specifically.”)?

A. Believing its closest competitor is about to do the same, a plant reduces its output

of a toxic chemical at great cost in order to comply with environmental
regulations.

B. In the face of new environmental regulations, a plant maintains its production

methods and passes the costs of compliance on to its customers.

C. A plant’

s manager learns of a competitor’

s methods of lowering environmental

compliance costs but is reluctant to implement those methods.

D. Having learned of an upcoming environmental ban on a certain chemical, a

company designs its new plant to employ processes that avoid use of that
chemical.

E. A plant attempts to save money by refusing to comply with environmental laws.

Answer:

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Q10:
According to the passage, which of the following statements about sulfur dioxide and
nitrogen oxide outputs is true?

A. Older production technologies cannot be adapted so as to reduce production of

these outputs as waste products.

B. Under the most recent environmental regulations, industrial plants are no longer

permitted to produce these outputs.

C. Although these outputs are environmentally hazardous, some plants still generate

them as waste products despite the high compliance costs they impose.

D. Many older plants have developed innovative technological processes that reduce

the amounts of these outputs generated as waste products.

E. Since the production processes that generate these outputs are less costly than

alternative processes, these less expensive processes are sometimes adopted
despite their acknowledged environmental hazards.

Answer:

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Q11:
The passage suggests which of the following concerning the relationship between the
location of a plant and the compliance costs it faces?

A. A plant is less likely to face high compliance costs if it is located near larger

plants that are in violation of environmental regulations.

B. An isolated plant is less likely to draw the attention of environmental regulators,

resulting in lower compliance costs.

C. A large plant that is located near other large facilities will most probably be

forced to pay high compliance costs.

D. A small plant that is located near a number of larger plants will be forced to

absorb some of its neighbors’

compliance costs.

E. A plant will often escape high compliance costs if it is located far away from

environmental regulatory agencies.

Answer:

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Q12:
A mosquito bite can transmit to a person the parasite that causes malaria, and the use of
mosquito nets over children’

s beds can significantly reduce the incidence of malarial

infection for children in areas where malaria is common. Yet public health officials are
reluctant to recommend the use of mosquito nets over children’

s beds in such areas.

Which of the following, if true, would provide the strongest grounds for the public health
officials’

reluctance?

A. Early exposure to malaria increases the body’

s resistance to it and results in a

lesser likelihood of severe life-threatening episodes of malaria.

B. Mosquito bites can transmit to people diseases other than malaria.
C. Mosquito nets provide protection from some insect pests other than mosquitoes.
D. Although there are vaccines available for many childhood diseases, no vaccine

has been developed that is effective against malaria.

E. The pesticides that are most effective against mosquitoes in regions where malaria

is common have significant detrimental effects on human health.

Answer:

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Q13:
Missing on purpose! I do not want to make everything perfect. Otherwise students may
feel too much pressure.
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Q14:
The Eurasian ruffe, a fish species inadvertently introduced into North America’

s Great

Lakes in recent years, feeds on the eggs of lake whitefish, a native species, thus
threatening the lakes’

natural ecosystem. To help track the ruffe’

s spread, government

agencies have produced wallet-sized cards about the ruffe. The cards contain pictures of
the ruffe and explain the danger they pose; the cards also request anglers to report any
ruffe they catch.

Which of the following, if true, would provide most support for the prediction that the
agencies’

action will have its intended effect?

A. The ruffe has spiny fins that make it unattractive as prey.
B. Ruffe generally feed at night, but most recreational fishing on the Great Lakes is

done during daytime hours.

C. Most people who fish recreationally on the Great Lakes are interested in the

preservation of the lake whitefish because it is a highly prized game fish.

D. The ruffe is one of several nonnative species in the Great Lakes whose existence

threatens the survival of lake whitefish populations there.

E. The bait that most people use when fishing for whitefish on the Great Lakes is not

attractive to ruffe.

Answer:

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Q15:
Dressed as a man and using the name Robert Shurtleff, Deborah Sampson, the first
woman to draw a soldier’

s pension, joined the Continental Army in 1782 at the age of 22,

was injured three times, and was discharged in 1783 because she had become too ill to
serve.

A. 22, was injured three times, and was discharged in 1783 because she had become

B. 22, was injured three times, while being discharged in 1783 because she had

become

C. 22, and was injured three times, and discharged in 1783, being
D. 22, injured three times, and was discharged in 1783 because she was
E. 22, having been injured three times and discharged in 1783, being

Answer:

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Q16:
A diet high in saturated fats increases a person’

s risk of developing heart disease.

Regular consumption of red wine reduces that risk. Per-capita consumption of saturated
fats is currently about the same in France as in the United States, but there is less heart
disease there than in the United States because consumption of red wine is higher in
France. The difference in regular red-wine consumption has been narrowing, but no
similar convergence in heart-disease rates has occurred.

Which of the following, if true, most helps to account for the lack of convergence noted
above?

A. Consumption of saturated fats is related more strongly to the growth of fatty

deposits on artery walls, which reduce blood flow to the heart, than it is to heart
disease directly.

B. Over the past 30 years, per-capita consumption of saturated fats has remained

essentially unchanged in the United States but has increased somewhat in France.

C. Reports of the health benefits of red wine have led many people in the United

States to drink red wine regularly.

D. Cigarette smoking, which can also contribute to heart disease, is only slightly

more common in France than in the United States.

E. Regular consumption of red wine is declining dramatically among young adults in

France, and heart disease typically does not manifest itself until middle age.

Answer:

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Q17:
Unlike most other mergers in the utility industry, which have been driven by the need to
save money and extend companies’

service areas, the merger of the nation’

s leading gas

and electric company is intended to create a huge marketing network for the utilities in
question with states opening their utility markets to competition.

A. and electric company is intended to create a huge marketing network for the

utilities in question with states opening

B. and electric companies are intended to create a huge network for marketing the

utilities in question as states open

C. and electric companies are intended to create a huge network that will be

marketing the utilities in question, with states opening

D. company and electric company are intending to create a huge marketing network

for the utilities in question, with states opening

E. company and leading electric company is intended to create a huge network for

marketing the utilities in question as states open

Answer:

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Q18:
On account of a law passed in 1993, making it a crime punishable by imprisonment that a
United States citizen hold gold in the form of bullion or coins, immigrants found that on
arrival in the United States they had to surrender all of the gold they had brought with
them.

A. On account of a law passed in 1993, making it a crime punishable by

imprisonment that a United States citizen hold

B. With a law passed in 1933 that makes it a crime punishable by imprisonment that

a United States citizen hold

C. A law passed in 1933 that made it a crime punishable by imprisonment for a

United States citizen holding

D. Because of a law passed in 1933 making it a crime punishable by imprisonment

for a United States citizen to hold

E. Due to a law being passed in 1933 that makes it a crime punishable by

imprisonment for a United States citizen to hold

Answer:

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Q19:
In many nations, criminal law does not apply to corporations, but in the United Stated
today, a corporation commits a crime whenever one of its employees commits a crime, if
the employee acted within the scope of his or her authority and if the corporation
benefited as a result.

A. a corporation commits a crime whenever one of its employees commits a crime, if

the employee acted

B. a corporation is committing a crime whenever one of its employees committed a

crime, if those employees were acting

C. corporations commit a crime whenever one of its employees does, on the

condition that the employee acts

D. corporations commit crimes whenever an employee of those corporations commit

a crime, if it was while acting

E. the corporation whose employees commit a crime, commits a crime, whenever the

employee acted

Answer:

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Q20:
Which of the following most logically completes the reasoning?

Either food scarcity or excessive hunting can threaten a population of animals. If the
group faces food scarcity, individuals in the group will reach reproductive maturity later
than otherwise. If the group faces excessive hunting, individuals that reach reproductive

maturity earlier will come to predominate. Therefore, it should be possible to determine
whether prehistoric mastodons became extinct because of food scarcity or human hunting,
since there are fossilized mastodon remains from both before and after mastodon
populations declined, and ______.

A. there are more fossilized mastodon remains from the period before mastodon

populations began to decline than from after that period

B. the average age at which mastodons from a given period reached reproductive

maturity can be established from their fossilized remains

C. it can be accurately estimated from fossilized remains when mastodons became

extinct

D. it is not known when humans first began hunting mastodons
E. climate changes may have gradually reduced the food available to mastodons

Answer:

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Q21 to Q23:

In the 1930’

s and 1940’

African American industrial

workers in the southern United

Line

States, who constituted 80 per-

(5)

cent of the unskilled factory labor
force there, strongly supported
unionization. While the American
Federation of Labor (AFL) either
excluded African Americans or

(10)

maintained racially segregated
unions, the Congress of Industrial
Organizations (CIO) organized
integrated unions nationwide on the
basis of a stated policy of equal

(15)

rights for all, and African American
unionists provided the CIO’

s back-

bone. Yet it can be argued that
through contracts negotiated and
enforced by White union mem-

(20)

bers, unions— CIO unions not

excluded— were often instrumen-

tal in maintaining the occupational
segregation and other forms of
racial discrimination that kept

(25)

African Americans socially and
economically oppressed during
this period. However, recognizing
employers’

power over workers

as a central factor in African

(30)

Americans’

economic marginal-

ization, African American workers
saw the need to join with White

workers in seeking change despite
White unionists’

toleration of or

(35) support for racial discrimination.

The persistent efforts of African
American unionists eventually paid
off: many became highly effective

organizers, gaining the respect of

(40) even racist White unionists by win-

ning victories for White as well as
African American workers. African
American unionists thus succeeded
in strengthening the unions while

(45)

using them as instruments of
African Americans’

economic

empowerment.

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Q21:
The passage is primarily concerned with

A. demonstrating that unions failed to address the concerns of African American

workers during a particular period

B. arguing that African American workers’

participation in unions during a particular

period was ultimately beneficial to them

C. contrasting the treatment of African American workers by two different labor

organizations during a particular period

D. giving reasons for the success of African American unionists in winning victories

for both African American and White workers during a particular period

E. questioning one explanation for the attitudes of African American workers toward

unionization during a particular period

Answer:

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Q22:
According to the passage, which of the following was true of many racist White unionists
during the period discussed in the passage?

A. Their attitudes toward African American union organizers changed once they

recognized that the activities of these organizers were serving workers’

interests.

B. They were a powerful element in the southern labor movement because they

constituted the majority of the unskilled factory labor force in the southern United
States.

C. They persisted in opposing the CIO’

s adoption of a stated policy of equal rights

for all.

D. Their primary goal was to strengthen the negotiating power of the unions through

increasing White union membership.

E. Their advocacy of racial discrimination hampered unions in their efforts to gain

more power for workers.

Answer:

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Q23:
The author of the passage suggests which of the following about African American
workers who participated in union activities in the 1930’

s and 1940’

A. They believed that the elimination of discrimination within unions was a

necessary first step toward the achievement of economic advancement for African
Americans.

B. They belonged exclusively to CIO unions because they were excluded from AFL

unions.

C. They believed that the economic advancement of African American workers

depended on organized efforts to empower all workers.

D. Some of them advocated the organization of separate African American unions

because of discriminatory practices in the AFL and the CIO.

E. Many of them did not believe that White unionists in CIO unions would tolerate

or support racial discrimination against African American workers.

Answer:

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Q24:
For similar cars and drivers, automobile insurance for collision damage has always cost
more in Greatport than in Fairmont. Police studies, however, show that cars owned by
Greatport residents are, on average, slightly less likely to be involved in a collision than
cars in Fairmont. Clearly, therefore, insurance companies are making a greater profit on
collision-damage insurance in Greatport than in Fairmont.

Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?

A. Repairing typical collision damage does not cost more in Greatport than in

Fairmont.

B. There are no more motorists in Greatport than in Fairmont.
C. Greatport residents who have been in a collision are more likely to report it to

their insurance company than Fairmont residents are.

D. Fairmont and Greatport are the cities with the highest collision-damage insurance

rates.

E. The insurance companies were already aware of the difference in the likelihood

of collisions before the publication of the police reports.

Answer:

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Q25:
Unlike a female grizzly bear in the Rockies, which typically occupies a range of 50 to
300 square miles, a male’

s range will cover 200 to 500 and occasionally as many as 600.

A. Unlike a female grizzly bear in the Rockies, which typically occupies a range of

50 to 300 square miles, a male’

s range will cover 200 to 500 and occasionally as

B. Unlike the range of a female grizzly bear in the Rockies, typically occupying 50

to 300 square miles, a male will cover 200 to 500 and occasionally so

C. While the typical range of a female grizzly bear in the Rockies is 50 to 300 square

miles, with males, their range can cover 200 to 500 square miles and occasionally
so

D. Whereas a female grizzly bear in the Rockies typically occupies a range of 50 to

300 square miles, a male will cover 200 to 500 and occasionally as

E. The typical range of a female grizzly bear in the Rockies is 50 to 300 square miles,

unlike males, which will cover 200 to 500 square miles and occasionally as

Answer:

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Q26:
Growing evidence that coastal erosion occurs continuously, not in just such calamitous
bursts like hurricanes, has led scientists and planners to urge a stringent new approach to
limiting development along the nation’

s shoreline.

A. coastal erosion occurs continuously, not in just such calamitous bursts like

hurricanes, has

B. coastal erosion occurs continuously, not just in calamitous bursts such as

hurricanes, has

C. coastal erosion is continuously occurring, not in just calamitous bursts like

hurricanes, having

D. there is continuous coastal erosion, not just in calamitous bursts such as

hurricanes, which has

E. there is continuous coastal erosion occurring, not in just such calamitous bursts

like hurricanes, has

Answer:

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Q27:
Scientists have identified an asteroid, 2000 BF19, that is about half a mile wide and, if it
strikes Earth, it can do tremendous damage to part of the planet but probably not cause
planetwide destruction.

A. and, if it strikes Earth, it can do tremendous damage to part of the planet but
B. and, if it would strike Earth, part of the planet could experience a tremendous

amount of damage but it would

C. and that, if it were to strike Earth, could do tremendous damage to part of the

planet but would

D. and that, if Earth is struck by it, can do part of the planet tremendous damage, but

it would

E. and that, if it strikes Earth, it could experience a tremendous amount of damage

but

Answer:

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Q28:
Editorial in Krenlandian Newspaper:

Krenland’

s steelmakers are losing domestic sales because of lower-priced imports, in

many cases because foreign governments subsidize their steel industries in ways that are
banned by international treaties. But whatever the cause, the cost is ultimately going to
be jobs in Krenland’

s steel industry. Therefore, it would protect not only steel companies

but also industrial employment in Krenland if our government took measures to reduce
cheap steel imports.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the editorial’

s argument?

A. Because steel from Krenland is rarely competitive in international markets, only a

very small portion of Krenlandian steelmakers’

revenue comes from exports.

B. The international treaties that some governments are violating by giving subsidies

to steelmakers do not specify any penalties for such violations.

C. For many Krenlandian manufacturers who face severe international competition

in both domestic and export markets, steel constitutes a significant part of their
raw material costs.

D. Because of advances in order-taking, shipping, and inventory systems, the cost of

shipping steel from foreign producers to Krenland has fallen considerably in
recent years.

E. Wages paid to workers in the steel industry in Krenland differ significantly from

wages paid to workers in many of the countries that export steel to Krenland.

Answer:

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Q29:
Twenty-two feet long and 10 feet in diameter, the AM-1 is one of the many new satellites
that is a part of 15 years effort of subjecting the interactions of Earth’

s atmosphere,

oceans, and land surfaces to detailed scrutiny from space.

A. satellites that is a part of 15 years effort of subjecting the interactions of Earth’

atmosphere, oceans, and land surfaces

B. satellites, which is a part of a 15-year effort to subject how Earth’

s atmosphere,

oceans, and land surfaces interact

C. satellites, part of 15 years effort of subjecting how Earth’

s atmosphere, oceans,

and land surfaces are interacting

D. satellites that are part of an effort for 15 years that has subjected the interactions

of Earth’s atmosphere, oceans, and land surfaces

E. satellites that are part of a 15-year effort to subject the interactions of Earth’

atmosphere, ocean, and land surfaces

Answer:

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Q30:
Criminologist: Some legislators advocate mandating a sentence of life in prison for
anyone who, having twice served sentences for serious crimes, is subsequently convicted

of a third serious crime. These legislators argue that such a policy would reduce crime
dramatically, since it would take people with a proven tendency to commit crimes off
the streets permanently. What this reasoning overlooks, however, is that people old
enough to have served two prison sentences for serious crimes rarely commit more than
one subsequent crime. Filling our prisons with such individuals would have exactly
the opposite of the desired effect, since it would limit our ability to incarcerate younger
criminals, who commit a far greater proportion of serious crimes.

In the argument as a whole, the two boldfaced portions play which of the following roles?

A. The first is a conclusion that the argument as a whole seeks to refute; the second

is a claim that has been advanced in support of that conclusion.

B. The first is a conclusion that the argument as a whole seeks to refute; the second

is the main conclusion of the argument.

C. The first is the main conclusion of the argument; the second is an objection that

has been raised against that conclusion.

D. The first is the main conclusion of the argument; the second is a prediction made

on the basis of that conclusion.

E. The first is a generalization about the likely effect of a policy under consideration

in the argument; the second points out a group of exceptional cases to which that
generalization does not apply.

Answer:

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Q31:
The current economic downturn has significantly reduced advertising income both for
business journals as well as general consumer magazines, especially if focusing on
technology.

A. has significantly reduced advertising income both for business journals as well as

general consumer magazines, especially if focusing

B. has significantly reduced advertising income both for business journals and for

general consumer magazines, especially those focusing

C. significantly reduced advertising income for both business journals and for

general consumer magazines, especially when focused

D. reduced both business journals’

and general consumer magazines’

advertising

income significantly, especially if focused

E. reduced advertising income significantly for both business journals, as well as for

general consumer magazines, especially those focusing

Answer:

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Q32:
The United States minted about 857 million silver-colored “

Susan B. Anthony” dollars

between 1979 and 1981, but the coin proved unpopular because it looked and felt too
much like a quarter.

A. The United States minted about 857 million silver-colored “Susan B. Anthony”

dollars between 1979 and 1981, but the coin

B. About 857 million silver-colored “

Susan B. Anthony” dollars were minted as

coins in the United States between 1979 and 1981 but

C. About 857 million silver-colored “

Susan B. Anthony” dollars that were minted

between 1979 and 1981 in the United States

D. About 857 million silver-colored “

Susan B. Anthony” dollars that the United

States minted between 1979 and 1981

E. Between 1979 and 1981 the United States minted about 857 million silver-colored

“

Susan B. Anthony” dollars, which

Answer:

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Q33 to Q36:

Scientists studying the physiology

of dinosaurs have long debated whether

dinosaurs were warm- or cold-blooded.

Line

Those who suspect they were warm-

(5)

blooded point out that dinosaur bone
is generally fibro-lamellar in nature;
because fibro-lamellar bone is formed
quickly, the bone fibrils, or filaments, are
laid down haphazardly. Consistent with

(10)

their rapid growth rate, warm-blooded
animals, such as birds and mammals,
tend to produce fibro-lamellar bone,
whereas reptiles, which are slow-
growing and cold-blooded, generally

(15)

produce bone in which fibrils are laid
down parallel to each other. Moreover,
like the bone of birds and mammals,
dinosaur bone tends to be highly
vascularized, or filled with blood

(20)

vessels. These characteristics,

first recognized in the 1930’

were documented in the 1960’

s by

de Ricqlès, who found highly vascular-
ized, fibro-lamellar bone in several

(25)

groups of dinosaurs. In the 1970’

Bakker cited these characteristics as
evidence for the warm-bloodedness of
dinosaurs. Although de Ricqlès urged
caution, arguing for an intermediate type

(30)

of dinosaur physiology, a generation of
paleontologists has come to believe
that dinosaur bone is mammalianlike.
In the 1980’

s, however, Bakker’s

contention began to be questioned, as a

(35)

number of scientists found growth rings
in the bones of various dinosaurs that
are much like those in modern reptiles.
Bone growth in reptiles is periodic in
nature, producing a series of concentric

(40)

rings in the bone, not unlike the growth

rings of a tree. Recently, Chinsamy
investigated the bones of two dino-
saurs from the early Jurassic period
(208-187 million years ago), and found

(45)

that these bones also had growth rings;
however, they were also partially fibro-
lamellar in nature. Chinsamy’

s work

raises a question central to the debate
over dinosaur physiology: did dino-

(50)

saurs form fibro-lamellar bone because
of an innately high metabolic rate asso-
ciated with warm-bloodedness or
because of periods of unusually fast
growth that occurred under favorable

(55)

environmental conditions? (Although
modern reptiles generally do not form
fibro-lamellar bone, juvenile crocodiles
raised under optimal environmental
conditions do.) This question remains

(60)

unanswered; indeed, taking all the evi-
dence into account, one cannot make
a definitive statement about dinosaur
physiology on the basis of dinosaur
bone. It may be that dinosaurs had an

(65)

intermediate pattern of bone structure
because their physiology was neither
typically reptilian, mammalian, nor avian.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q33:
The author of the passage would be most likely to agree that the “caution” (line 29) urged
by de Ricqlès regarding claims about dinosaur physiology was

A. unjustified by the evidence available to de Ricqlès
B. unnecessary, given the work done by Bakker and his followers
C. indicative of the prevailing scientific opinion at the time
D. warranted, given certain subsequent findings of other scientists
E. influential in the recent work of Chinsamy

Answer:

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q34:
The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. discuss the influence on other scientists of Bakker’

s argument concerning the

warm-bloodedness of dinosaurs

B. provide evidence that supports the claim that dinosaurs were cold-blooded
C. challenge the contention that dinosaur bone tissue is innately fibro-lamellar
D. evaluate the claim that dinosaur bone tissue provides evidence for the warm-

bloodedness of dinosaurs

E. resolve the disagreement between de Ricqlès and Bakker over the nature of

dinosaur physiology

Answer:

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q35:
According to the passage, the discovery of growth rings in the bones of certain dinosaurs
served to undermine which of the following claims?

A. That modern reptiles are related to dinosaurs
B. That bone growth in dinosaurs was periodic in nature
C. That dinosaurs were warm-blooded
D. That dinosaurs had an intermediate type of physiology
E. That fibro-lamellar bone is the product of a rapid growth rate

Answer:

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q36:
The author of the passage mentions bone growth patterns in juvenile crocodiles most
likely in order to

A. provide support for the argument that reptiles are not related to dinosaurs
B. undermine the claim that most reptiles are slow-growing
C. offer an explanation as to why juvenile crocodiles differ from most modern

reptiles

D. suggest the juvenile crocodiles have a type of physiology intermediate between

that of mammals and that of reptiles

E. suggest that the presence of fibro-lamellar bone does not resolve the debate over

dinosaur physiology

Answer:

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q37:
Researchers took a group of teenagers who had never smoked and for one year tracked
whether they took up smoking and how their mental health changed. Those who began
smoking within a month of the study’

s start were four times as likely to be depressed at

the study’

s end than those who did not begin smoking. Since nicotine in cigarettes

changes brain chemistry, perhaps thereby affecting mood, it is likely that smoking
contributes to depression in teenagers.

Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?

A. Participants who were depressed at the study’

s start were no more likely to be

smokers at the study’s end than those who were not depressed.

B. Participants who began smoking within a month of the study’

s start were no more

likely than those who began midway through to have quit smoking by the study’

end.

C. Few, if any, of the participants in the study were friends or relatives of other

participants.

D. Some participants entered and emerged from a period of depression within the

year of the study.

E. The researchers did not track use of alcohol by the teenagers.

Answer:

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q38:
In January of last year the Moviemania chain of movie theaters started propping its
popcorn in canola oil, instead of the less healthful coconut oil that it had been using until
then. Now Moviemania is planning to switch back, saying that the change has hurt
popcorn sales. That claim is false, however, since according to Moviemania’

s own sales

figures, Moviemania sold 5 percent more popcorn last year than in the previous year.

Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the argument against
Moviemania’

s claim?

A. Total sales of all refreshments at Moviemania’

s movie theaters increased by less

than 5 percent last year.

B. Moviemania makes more money on food and beverages sold at its theaters than it

does on sales of movie tickets.

C. Moviemania’

s customers prefer the taste of popcorn popped in coconut oil to that

of popcorn popped in canola oil.

D. Total attendance at Moviemania’

s movie theaters was more than 20 percent

higher last year than the year before.

E. The year before last, Moviemania experienced a 10 percent increase in popcorn

sales over the previous year.

Answer:

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q39:
Over 75 percent of the energy produced in France derives from nuclear power, while in
Germany it is just over 33 percent.

A. while in Germany it is just over 33 percent
B. compared to Germany, which uses just over 33 percent
C. whereas nuclear power accounts for just over 33 percent of the energy produced

in Germany

D. whereas just over 33 percent of the energy comes from nuclear power in Germany

E. compared with the energy from nuclear power in Germany, where it is just over

33 percent

Answer:

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q40:
Agricultural societies cannot exist without staple crops. Several food plants, such as kola
and okra, are known to have been domesticated in western Africa, but they are all
supplemental, not staple, foods. All the recorded staple crops grown in western Africa
were introduced from elsewhere, beginning, at some unknown date, with rice and yams.
Therefore, discovering when rice and yams were introduced into western Africa would
establish the earliest date at which agricultural societies could have arisen there.

Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?

A. People in western Africa did not develop staple crops that they stopped cultivating

once rice and yams were introduced.

B. There are no plants native to western Africa that, if domesticated, could serve as

staple food crops.

C. Rice and yams were grown as staple crops by the earliest agricultural societies

outside of western Africa.

D. Kola and okra are better suited to growing conditions in western Africa than

domesticated rice and yams are.

E. Kola and okra were domesticated in western Africa before rice and yams were

introduced there.

Answer:

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q41:
A new study suggests that the conversational pace of everyday life may be so brisk it
hampers the ability of some children for distinguishing discrete sounds and words and,
the result is, to make sense of speech.

A. it hampers the ability of some children for distinguishing discrete sounds and

words and, the result is, to make

B. that it hampers the ability of some children to distinguish discrete sounds and

words and, as a result, to make

C. that it hampers the ability of some children to distinguish discrete sounds and

words and, the result of this, they are unable to make

D. that it hampers the ability of some children to distinguish discrete sounds and

words, and results in not making

E. as to hamper the ability of some children for distinguishing discrete sounds and

words, resulting in being unable to make

Answer:

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Answers:
BDEBA, CDADA, AA_CA, EEBAB, BACAD, BCCEB, BADDC, EAADA, B (Q13 is
missing!)

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