1. Virulence factors of S. pneumoniae include:
a) M surface protein
b) capsules
c) deoxyribonuclease
d) CF (clumping factor)
2. A 55-year-old male was admitted to a local hospital with fever and chills. The patient had received multiple courses of antibiotics. Blood cultures grew a Gram positive cocci, which tested positive with group D streptococcal antisera. The isolate was resistant to penicillin and vancomycin. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen?
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Enterococcus faecium
c) Streptococcus pyogenes
d) Streptococcus agalactiae
3. A 3-year-old child develops acute glomerulonephritis following impetigo. The bacteria is a catalase-negative, Gram-positive coccus that has M 12 surface protein. What is the most likely causative agent?
a) Enterococcus faecium
b) Streptococcus mutans
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
d) Streptococcus pyogenes
4. Which of the following bacteria is most likely to be alpha-haemolytic?
a) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Staphylococus aureus
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
d) Streptococcus agalactiae
5. What organism is most likely responsible for bacterial meningitis in infants during the first month of life:
a) Enterococcus faecalis
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Streptococcus agalactiae
d) Streptococcus pneumoniae
6. High ASO titers point to:
a) S. aureus
b) S. pyogenes
c) S. pneumoniae
d) S. saprophyticus
7. Enterococci induce most frequently:
a) food poisoning
b) diseases of respiratory system
c) urinary tract infections
d) veneral diseases
8. What causative agent is most likely responsible for oedema, hematuria, proteinuria in a patient who had impetigo 3 weeks ago:
a) S. aureus
b) S. epidermidis
c) S. agalactiae
d) S. pyogenes
9. A 51-year- old man was admitted to the hospital: unresponsive, with epileptiform movements, fever and stiff of his neck. Chest examination reveled lobbar pneumonia. Because of the fever and unconsciousness, lumbar puncture was done promptly to examine the CSF: had a heavy concentration of gram-positive cocci in pairs, the most likely microbial etiology of his infections is:
a) Streptococcus agalactiae
b) Streptococcus pyogenes
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
d) Streptococcus bovis
10. Streptococcus agalactiae is also known by its Lancefield group which is:
a) group A
b) group B
c) group C
d) group D
11.Which of the following is a characteristic of Streptococcus pyogenes?
a) Gram-negative cocci
b) endotoxin
c) catalase
d) fimbriae
12. Pneumococcal pneumonia or meningitis rarely occurs in the absence of what virulence factor?
a) capsule
b) heat shock proteins
c) outer membrane
d) periplasmic space
13. What antigen is most useful in identifying nephritogenic strains of Group A streptococci which may induce glomerulonephritis?
a) capsular antigen
b) cell wall carbohydrates
d) M proteins
d) outer membrane proteins
14. Serological classification of Streptococci is based on appearance different types of:
a) C polysaccharide
b) protein M
c) streptolysin O
d) erytrogenic toxin
15. Sequelae of S. pyogenes infection are:
a) glomerulonephritis and erysipelas
b) erysipelas and impetigo
c) impetigo and endocarditis
d) rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis
16. Influence on rash formation in scarlet fever has:
a) C polysaccharide
b) protein M
c) streptolysin O
d) erytrogenic toxin
17. Choose bacteria, which is sensitive to bacitracin:
a) S. pyogenes
b) S. pneumoniae
c) S. mutans
d) S. agalactiae
18. ASO test detect:
a) antigens against streptolysin O
b) antibody against streptolysin S
c) antibody against streptolysin O
d) antigens against streptolysin S
19. S. pneumoniae is divided into 85 types on the grounds of properties of:
a) capsule
b) protein M
c) vaccine
d) pneumolysin
20. Streptococcus mutans continues caries started by:
a) S. milleri
b) S. sanguis
c) S. salivarius
d) S. pyogenes