Name:……………………………………………….……………..……Group 1

27.03.2007

1.Treatment of Pasteurella multocida infections:

a) is not required

b) includes penicillin

c) includes tetracyclines

d) includes chinolones

3. Typical signs of bubonic plague include:

a) pneumonia

b) exanthema

c) hepatomegaly

d) lymphadenitis (buboes)

4. N. meningitidis causes meningitis in all age groups. Which of the following is a characteristic physiological trait?

a) It causes spontaneous abortion and has tropism for placental tissue due to the presence of the erythritol in allantoic and amniotic fluid.

b) It has a capsule of polyglutamic acid, which is toxic when injected into rabbits.

c) It possesses N-acetylneuraminic acid capsule and adheres to specific tissue by pili found on the bacterial cell surface.

d) It secretes two toxins, A and B, in the large bowel during antibiotic therapy.

5. H.influenzae capsule type b consists of:

a) lipopolysaccharides (LPS)

b) polyribose - ribitol phosphate (PRP)

c) outer membrane protein (OMP)

d) lipooligosaccharide (LOS)

6. Pelvic inflamatory disease (PID) is caused by:

a) S. aureus

b) S. pyogenes

c) N. meningitidis

d) N. gonorrheoeae

7. Etiologic agent of meningitis in infants and children aged 2 months to 5 years:

a) Haemophilus influenzae type b

b) Streptococcus pneumoniae

c) Neisseria meningitidis

d) All of the above

8. A patient presented to the eye casualty with a painful eye. Coneal scrappino showed the Gram negative bacilli. What is the most common predisposing factor for this infection?

a) S. aureus

b) P. aeruginosa

c) H. influenzae typ b

d) N. gonorrhoeae

9. Sings of H.ducreyi (chancroid or soft charice) include:

a) vomiting

b) stiff neck

c) diarrhea

d) papule and friable ulcer

10. H.influenzae capsule type b consists of:

a) lipopolysaccharides (LPS)

b) polyribose - ribitol phosphate (PRP)

c) outer membrane protein (OMP)

d) lipooligosaccharide (LOS)

Name:………………………………………………..………..……Group 2

29.03.2007

1.Development of plague epidemics is related to:

a) coagulase production by Y.pestis

b) production of fibrinolysin by Y.pestis

c) both of the above

d) none of the above

2. Bordetella pertussis, called whooping cough, can best be detected by which of the following procedures?

a) Culture of respiratory secretions in HeLa cells after centrifugation of the inoculated tubes

b) Culture of respiratory secretions on Regan-Lowe agar

c) Direct microscopy of sputum by Gram stain

d) Fluorescent antibody detection of the organism in sputum

3. One can get infected with brucellosis due to consumption of:

a) boiled meat

b) raw milk

c) fruit

d) water

4. Bordetella pertussis is a Gram-negative rod that causes severe respiratory disease. Which one of the following statements best characterizes this microorganism?

a) It produces at least one protein toxin consisting of two subunits, A and B, that cause severe spasmodic cough, usually in children

b) It produces a toxin that blocks protein synthesis in an infected cell and carries a lytic bacteriophage that produces the genetic information for toxin production

c) It secretes an erythrogenic toxin that causes the characteristic signs of scarlet fever

d) It secretes an exotoxin that has been called “verotoxin” and “Shiga-like toxin”; infection is mediated by specific attachment to mucosal membranes

5. Clinical signs of brucellosis include:

a) undulant fever

b) papular eruption

c) throat pains

d) conjunctivitis

6. N. gonorrhoeae is fastidious pathogen found in sites often contaminated with normal flora. What is the best medium for isolation.

a) Loffler's medium

b) Sheep blood agar

c) Thayer-Martin agar

d) Thisulfate citrate bile salts sucrose medium

7. Acellular B.pertussis vaccine contains:

a) LPS

b) polysaccharide capsule

c) tracheal cytotoxin

d) FHA, pertactin, pertussis toxoid

8. Which of the following is most likely to cause urinary tract infections:

a) Listeria monocytogenes

b) Streptococcus pneumoniae

c) Klebsiella spp.

d) Escherichia coli

9. Which of the following bacteria induce lesions to ciliated epithelial cells:

a) H.influenzae

b) P.aeruginosa

c) B.pertussis

d) S.aureus

10. What is the treatment for pertussis?

a) Vancomycin

b) Penicillin

c) ceftazidine

d) Erythromycin

Name:………………………………………..……Group 3

29.03.2007

1. Which of the following is a preferred third - generation cephalosporin with good activity against childhood meningitis?

a) Penicillin

b) Vancomycin

c) Ceftazidine

d) Cefotaxime

2. There are variety of unusual bacteria that infect humans. While rare disease caused by these microorganisms is serious and occasionally difficult to identify. Which of the following statements best characterizes Moraxella catarrhalis?

a) A gram-negative, pleomorhic rod that can cause endocarditis

b) A gram-negative rod, fusiform-shaped, that is associated with periodontal disease but may cause sepsis.

c) The causative agent of sinusitis, bronchitis, and pneumonia

d) The causative agent of rat-bite fever

3. The virulence factors N.memingitidis responible for or thought to faciliate adherence to the nospharyngeal mucosa are:

a) fagella and spores

b) exotoxins and enterotoxins

c) pili and IgA 1 protease

d) outer membrane proteins (OMP)

4. Several days after an unprotected sexual encounter, a healthy 21-years old male develops pain and pus on urination. A Gram stain reveals gram-negative diplococci. Which of the following structures is most responsible for adherence of the offending microbe to the urethral mucosa?

a) capsule

b) fimbriae

c) flagella

d) the F pili

5. A hyperemic edema of the larynx and epiglottis that rapidly leads to respiratory obstruction in young children is most likely to be caused by which of the following organisms?

a) Haemophilus hemolyticus

b) H. influenzae

c) K. pneumoniae

d) Neisseria meningitides

6. A sputum sample was brought to the laboratory for analysis. Gram stain revealed the following: rare epithelial cells, 8 to 10 polymorphonuclear leukocytes per high-power field, and pleomorphic gram-negative rods. As a laboratory consultant, which of the following interpretations should you make?

a) The appearance of the sputum is suggestive of H. influenzae

b) The patient has pneumococcal pneumonia

c) The sputum specimen is too contaminated by saliva to be useful

d) There is no evidence of an inflammatory response

7. The person who contracts gonorrhoea is most likely to have acquired it via which of the following.

a) gastrointestinal tract

b) genital tract

c) nasal tract

d) skin

8. Primary gonococcal disease:

a) never initiates in the pharynx or rectum

b) occur only as acute male or female urethritis

c) is usually treated with penicillin

d) results in acute inflammatory response characterized by polymorphonuclear leukocytes attracted to the primary site by LOS and host complements.

9. How is pertussis prevented?

a) IPV vaccine

b) DTaP vaccine

c) H i b vaccine

d) Hep B vaccine

10. Most gonococcal strains that produce disseminated diseuse:

a) are sensitive to killing by normal human serum

b) are A-H-U-auxotrophs

c) do not contain LOS

d) are relatively resistance to penicillin

2. Endotoxic shock, linked to the presence of toxic LPS in the cell wall, most frequently is induced by:

a) E.coli

b) Klebsiella spp.

c) Enterococcus spp.

d) Proteus spp.

4. The Kauffmann - white's scheme includes classification of serotypes of:

a) Salmonella spp.

b) Shigella spp.

c) E. coli

d) Proteus spp.

6. A 2-year-old infant is brought to the emergency room with hemolytic uremic syndrom (HUS) and thrombocytopenia. Which one of the following bacteria would most likely be isolated from a stool specimen?

a) Salmonella enteritidis

b) E. coli O₁₅₇ H₇

c) Shigella flexneri

d) Klebsiella pneumoniae

8. Shigellosis is common in travelers to developing countries. Infection is commonly acquired through which of the following routes?

a) gastrointestinal tract

b) genital tract

c) skin

d) respiratory tract

10. Which one of the following E. coli types is characterized by the presence of LT (heat-labile) and ST (heat-stable) enterotoxins.

a) Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)

b) Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)

c) Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)

d) Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)

2. E. coli O157H7 is a newsworthy microorganism that has been isolated from foods, with increasing frequency. Its characteristic biology is best described by which of the following statements?

a) It produces protein toxin that cause severe spasmodic cough, usually in children

b) It produces a toxin that blocks protein synthesis in an infected cell

c) It secretes an exotoxin that has been called “verotoxin” and “Shiga-like toxin”

d) It secretes an erythrogenic toxin that causes the characteristic signs of scarlet fever

4. Which of the following tests would be most useful to differentiate Shigella flexneri from

Shigella boydii?

a) fermentation of lactose

b) motility

c) agglutination in specific antisera

d) production of H₂S

6. Local lesions induced by Salmonella typhi are localized mainly in:

a) large intestine

b) small intestine

c) kidneys

d) liver

8. Which of the following is most likely to cause urinary tract infections:

a) Listeria monocytogenes

b) Streptococcus pneumoniae

c) Klebsiella spp.

d) Escherichia coli

10. Diarrhea in travelers is commonly cause by

a) Proteus vulgaris

b) Klebsiella pneumoniae

c) ETEC (enterotoxigenic E. coli)

d) EPEC (enteropathogenic E. coli)

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