433 8C12 PBLZN63ZVY7PKJBADZU2SCMMEPJDKCYEP2TM3WQ

○

Answer Key

1. a, d

2. b

3. b, c

4. b

5. b

6. e

7. b

8. b

9. d

10. c

11. b

12. b

13. d

14. a

15. c

16. c

17. b

18. c, d

19. a

20. a, b, c

21. d

22. b

23. d

24. b

25. b

26. e

27. d

28. c

29. d

30. c

31. c

32. d

33. e

34. b, c, d

35. c

36. b

37. a

38. d

39. a

40. d

41. d

42. c

43. a

44. c

45. b

46. d

47. c

48. b

49. b

50. a, d

51. a, b

52. c

53. c

54. c

55. b, c, d, f

56. e

57. b

58. a

59. c

60. e

61. b

62. a, b, c

63. f

64. c, d

65. e

66. a, b, d

67. e

68. c

69. a

70. a, c, e

71. d

72. d

73. c

74. d

75. c

76. d

77. d

78. c

79. a

80. e

81. a, b, c, d, f, h, j

82. b

83. b, d

84. a

85. b, d, e

86. d

87. a

88. a

89. e

90. d

91. c

92. a

93. a

94. b, c

95. a, c, d

96. a, c, d

97. b, d

98. a

99. b

100. d

○

Chapter 12

Question 1

The correct answers are a and d. Layer 2 (Data Link layer) handles frames across
the physical medium. Answer b is incorrect, because bits are transferred at layer 1
(Physical layer) of the OSI model. Answer c is incorrect, because layer 3 (Net-
work layer) is commonly known as packets.

Question 2

The correct answer is b. To enable RIP routing, you issue the router rip global
command. By default, a Cisco router will send only RIP version I packets but will
listen for RIP I and RIP II. Therefore, if you only configure RIP I, then RIP II
packets will also be received and placed in the routing table, but they will not be
advertised by RIP. If you enable RIP II with the version 2 command, then you’ll
only send and receive RIP II packets. Answer a is incorrect, because router-rip is
an invalid IOS command. Answer c is incorrect, because the version 2 command
is only applicable to the interface and does not satisfy the question. Answer d is
incorrect, because ip rip version 2 is an invalid IOS command. Answer e is incor-
rect, because answer a is an invalid IOS command.

Question 3

The correct answers are b and c. The unique bridge identifier is made up of the
bridge’s MAC address and the priority, which is either set by the administrator or
is a default value. Answer a is incorrect, because the IP address (layer 3 or the
Network layer) is not part of the spanning tree protocol or the bridge identifier.
Answer d is incorrect, because the cost is used between switches and is not part of
the unique bridge identifier.

Question 4

The correct answer is b. The Simple Server Redundancy Protocol (SSRP) creates
fault tolerance using standard LANE protocols and mechanisms. Typically, SSRP
is implemented in large ATM LANE environments. Answer a is incorrect, be-
cause Ethernet is defined in 802.3 and not by LANE. Answer c is incorrect,
because Token Ring is defined in 802.5 and not by LANE. Answer d is incorrect,
because answers a and c are incorrect.

Question 5

The correct answer is b. When a SNAP header is found (DSAP [Destination
Service Access Point] and SSAP [Source Service Access Point] fields in the frame
are set to AA AA, respectively) this tells the device to look further into the data
for the type of payload being sent. SSAP/DSAP is used to the destination, plus

○

Answer Key

they define the recipient of a packet. Answer a is incorrect, because the routing
information field is indicated by the first bit in the source address. Answer c is
incorrect, because the DSAP/SSAP fields are not used to detect collisions. An-
swer d is incorrect, because the address copied and the recognized fields are part
of the frame status field in a Token Ring data frame, which are found further
down the frame, after the SNAP header.

Question 6

The correct answer is e. The address recognized (A) bit and the address copied
(C) bit are duplicated to ensure the integrity of the two fields. The A and C bits
are not checked by the frame check sequence fields because only the FC, DA,
SA, and data fields are checked. Answer a is incorrect, because the A/C bits are
present in a Token Ring data frame. Answer b is incorrect, because the A/C fields
are not always 1, except when the address was recognized and the frame was
copied. Answer c is incorrect, because the A/C fields are duplicated to ensure
frame integrity. Answer d is incorrect, because the A/C fields are present in To-
ken Ring data frames.

Question 7

The correct answer is b. When a user tries to authenticate to a RADIUS server,
there are three valid responses. They are Accept (user has an authorized account),
Reject (user is not authorized), and Challenge (additional information is required).
Answer b is not a valid response, because ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is
not part of the RADIUS authentication protocol.

Question 8

The correct answer is b. The default update interval is 90 seconds, and the maxi-
mum hop count for IGRP is 255 (although the default is 100 hops). Answers a,
c, and d are incorrect, because as they represent wrong update intervals and hop
counts. Hop count is not used as a metric; it is used to determine route integrity.

Question 9

The correct answer is d. Any single IGRP update can advertise a total of 104
networks. Answers a, b, c, and e are incorrect, because 104 is the correct answer.

Question 10

The correct answer is c. OSPF requires a valid IP address to be allocated to the
router id. The router id is sent in all updates and in the discovery of new routers.

○

Chapter 12

Answer a is incorrect, because, without a router id, OSPF will not start on a Cisco
router. Answer b is incorrect, because the error message is not related to memory
requirements. Answer d is incorrect, because answers a and b are incorrect.

Question 11

The correct answer is b. When RSRB is configured on Cisco routers, the RIF is
not terminated at the local router. The RIF will be composed of every device that
needs to be traversed. The virtual ring on Device A is 10, or 0x00A in hex. On
Device B, the virtual ring is 0x010. Hence, the RIF will be,
0A10.0011.00A1.0101.0020 (that is, through ring 001, bridge 1, ring 00A, bridge
1, ring 010, bridge 1, and finally to the destination ring 002, bridge 0). A RIF
always ends with 0 to identify the destination ring. Therefore, answers a and c are
immediately discounted. Answer d is incorrect because in a RSRB environment
the RIF is used to determine the path to remote SRB devices.

Question 12

The correct answer is b. The 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 parameter is shorthand for
the any keyword. This means we are not concerned about hosts or which net-
works are to be passed to the IP routing software. Answer a is incorrect, because
the dash is missing between the access and list keywords. Answer c is incorrect,
because the IOS will display the wildcard address 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 as
any. Answer d is incorrect, because the question provides enough IOS code to
determine that answer b is the correct answer.

Question 13

The correct answer is d. The IOS syntax is ip policy route-map <name>. The
route-map name is case sensitive. Answer a is incorrect, because the question
contains enough data to determine the correct answer. Answer b is incorrect,
because the IOS syntax is missing route-. Answer c is incorrect, because the
command uses the wrong case—cisco is incorrectly used in place of Cisco.

Question 14

The correct answer is a. RTMP, a distance-vector protocol, sends full broadcasts
every 10 seconds. Answers b, c, and d are incorrect, because the answers state the
wrong broadcast intervals.

○

Answer Key

Question 15

The correct answer is c. In a BGP table, any network displayed with a next hop
address of 0.0.0.0 indicates that the network is a local interface. The next hop
address of 131.108.1.2 describes the remote 10.1.2.0/24. Answers a and b are
incorrect, because BGP networks are indicated by a valid next hop address and
not the address 0.0.0.0. Answer d is incorrect, because the question provides
enough data to deduce that answer c is correct.

Question 16

The correct answer is c. To start AppleTalk EIGRP, the correct syntax is appletalk
routing eigrp <router-id>. The router-id must be unique to each router. Answer
a is incorrect, because the appletalk routing command starts RTMP, not EIGRP.
Answer b is incorrect, because the syntax is wrong—no dash is required between
eigrp and the process ID. Answer d is incorrect, because the no appletalk proto-
col RTMP command is used to stop RTMP updates after AppleTalk EIGRP is
enabled.

Question 17

The correct answer is b. In a DECnet environment, such as Ethernet, the DR
helps end nodes find other devices. The priority is used by default, but if two or
more routers have the same priority, the node with the highest node address
becomes the DR. In this case, 1.2 is higher than 1.1, so the router with address
1.2 will become the DR. Answer a is incorrect, because 1.1 is lower than 1.2.
Answer c is incorrect, because a DR is required on a DECnet broadcast network.
Answer d is incorrect, because the question provides enough data to deduce that
answer b is correct.

Question 18

The correct answers are c and d. IP and AppleTalk (AARP) use ARP. Answers a
and b are incorrect, because DECnet and IPX do not use ARP. IPX and DECnet
both use their own MAC address as part of the network address.

Question 19

The correct answer is a. PC-A resides on a Token Ring network and PC-C re-
sides on a Ethernet network. Ethernet devices do not use RIFs, so PC-C cannot
see the RIF frame. Therefore, answers b, c and d are incorrect because they are
examples of RIFs.

○

Chapter 12

Question 20

The correct answers are a, b, and c. RIP uses split horizon, hold downs, and
poison reverse to help speed up RIP convergence. Answer d is incorrect, because
IP RIP does not deploy the hello protocol. Instead, because RIP is a distance-
vector protocol, it sends the full contents of its routing table to all neighboring
routers.

Question 21

The correct answer is d. CHAP and PAP are authentication protocols used in
Point-To-Point (PPP) networks. CHAP and PAP ensure that the correct devices
gain access to a network. Answers a, b, c, and e are incorrect, because frame relay,
HDLC, ATM, and LANE do not use CHAP or PAP authentication techniques.

Question 22

The correct answer is b. When redistributing from one IP routing protocol to
another, the network administrator must convert metrics used from one domain
to the other. For example cost in OSPF to hop count in RIP, and vice versa.
Answer a, is incorrect, because RIP must be advised about the metric to be ap-
plied when redistributing OSPF to RIP. Answer c is incorrect, because the OSPF
process id is only locally significant to a Cisco router. Answer d is incorrect,
because OSPF or BGP can be used to route information from a RIP domain.

Question 23

The correct answer is d. The router named Simon has two IP addresses in Area
100 and, therefore, requires the network statements for the two IP addresses only.
To place the directly attached networks into Area 6, two network statements are
required:

network 131.108.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 6

network 131.108.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 6

Answer a is incorrect, because the network 131.108.3.0/24 is not directly at-
tached to the Simon router. Answer b is incorrect, because the network statement
131.108.0.0 0.0.255.255 will place the whole class B range 131.108.0.0 to
131.108.255.255 in area 6. Answer c is incorrect, because the network statements
configured are using the subnet address and not the interface address. The com-
mand 131.108.1.0 0.0.0.0 (subnet address is reserved) will not identify what in-
terface to place under the OSPF process.

○

Answer Key

Question 24

The correct answer is b. The access list 100 has not been defined, although the
configuration displays the ip access-group 100 in interface command. When an
access list is not defined, the router will not perform any IP-based filtering. An-
swer a is incorrect, because access list 100 is not defined. Answer c is incorrect,
because serial0 is configured for IP. Answer d is incorrect, because access 100 is
not defined in the global configuration.

Question 25

The correct answer is b. IEEE 802.2 defines the Logical Link Control. Answer a
is incorrect, because Ethernet is defined in IEEE 802.3. Answer c is incorrect,
because Token Ring bus is defined in IEEE 802.4. Answer d is incorrect, because
Token Ring star is defined in IEEE 802.5.

Question 26

The correct answer is e. To copy files from the startup (or NVRAM) configura-
tion to a TFTP server, use the copy startup-config tftp command. Answer a is
incorrect, because the copy tftp running-config command copies a configuration
from a TFTP server to the running configuration. Answers b and c are incorrect,
because the commands are invalid IOS commands. Answer d is incorrect, be-
cause config is not a valid IOS command.

Question 27

The correct answer is d. Ethernet II specifies a type field, and Ethernet 802.3
specifies a length field. Answer a is incorrect, because Ethernet II was released
and Ethernet 802.3 was released in the 1980s. Answer b is incorrect, because
Ethernet 802.3I does not specify the protocol field but the length field following
the source MAC address field. Answer c is incorrect, because Ethernet II speci-
fies a type field, not a length field. Answer e is incorrect, because there is a small
difference between Ethernet II and Ethernet 802.3, even though both versions
of Ethernet transmit in non-canonical order (least significant bit first).

Question 28

The correct answer is c. Bootlfash is used to store IOS images. When an IOS
image is deleted from bootflash (such as a pcmcia flash card) the command squeeze
devicename must be issued to delete the file from the bootflash. Answers a is
incorrect, because reloading the router will have no effect on the bootflash. An-
swer b is incorrect, because you cannot shutdown the bootflash device. Answer d
is incorrect, because this is not a known bug.

○

Chapter 12

Question 29

The correct answer is d. When a change is made on a Cisco router’s interface to
change an IP address, the effect is immediate. Answer a is incorrect, because the
command goes into effect immediately—not after exiting the global configura-
tion mode. Answer b is incorrect, because changing the IP address does not re-
quire a router reload. Answer c is incorrect, because you do not need to shut
down the interface when changing the IP address.

Question 30

The correct answer is c. When you intercept a router reload by hitting control
break, you cause the router to enter ROM mode. ROM mode allows you to
determine hardware or software issues. Answer a is incorrect, because, after 60
seconds, the break command has no effect unless specifically configured on the
boot register. Answer b is incorrect, because a break sequence will not cause a
router to enter global configuration mode. Answer d is incorrect, because there is
no engineering mode available to end users. Answer e is incorrect, because the
router will boot into ROM mode when a break key is issued before 60 seconds
when a router reloads.

Question 31

The correct answer is c. Class C addresses, which have only 8 bits, provide the
least number of host devices (254). Answer a is incorrect, because there are more
than 16 million host addresses available with a class A address. Answer b is in-
correct, because a class B address allows more than 16,000 host addresses. An-
swers d and e are incorrect, because class D and class E addresses are reserved.

Question 32

The correct answer is d. The IP checksum only checks for errors in the IP header.
Answers a and b are in incorrect, because the checksum does not involve a packet’s
data portion. Higher layers, such as TCP, check a packet’s data portion. Answer c
is incorrect, because the IP header checksum is not calculated on the whole IP
packet. Answer e is incorrect, because only answer b provides the correct re-
sponse to the question.

Question 33

The correct answer is e. The mask 255.255.255.0 allows for 8 bits to be used by
end devices. Two host addresses (00000000 and 11111111) are reserved for broad-
casts, so you can have up to 2

-2=256-2=254 host addresses. Answers a, b, c, and

d are incorrect, because the correct answer is 254 hosts.

○

Answer Key

Question 34

The correct answers are b, c, and d. Manual configuration or static routing can
route IP. IP can also be routed using the IS-IS and OSPF routing protocols.
Answer a is incorrect, because IPX RIP is used to route the desktop protocol IPX
and not IP. Answer e is incorrect because RTMP is used for AppleTalk.

Question 35

The correct answer is c. The line that indicates the bandwidth of the interface in
the question is:

MTU 4464 bytes, BW 4000 Kbit, ...

The BW represents the bandwidth in Kbit—4000Kbit in this example. Answers
a, b, d, e, and f are incorrect, because 4 is the correct response.

Question 36

The correct answer is b. An IP routing table or routing information base never
lists layer 2 MAC address information, because a routing table is based on layer 3
information. Answers a, c, and d are incorrect, because IP routing tables list char-
acteristics such as next hop addresses, routing metrics, and outbound interfaces.

Question 37

The correct answer is a. ATM LANE is used to allow protocols such as Ethernet
and Token Ring the high bandwidth that ATM can offer. ATM LANE consists
of the following devices:

➤ LAN Emulation Client (LEC)—Implements the LANE standard including

data forwarding, address resolution (LE-ARP). Each LEC is made up of a
unique ATM address.

➤ LAN Emulation Server (LES)—Manages stations that make up the emulated

LAN

➤ Broadcast and Unknown Server (BUS)—Handles all broadcast frames to un-

known destinations

➤ LAN Emulation Configuration Server (LECS)—Contains information about

all emulated LANs

Therefore, answers b, c, d, and e are incorrect. The HEC (Header Error Control)
is an algorithm used in ATM to check and correct cells that may be corrupted.
The HEC field is part of the ATM cell header. HEC is not part of ATM LANE.

○

Chapter 12

Question 38

The correct answer is d. A TCP session requires a device to request a session to
terminate, which requires one TCP segment. Then, an acknowledgment is sent
and the second device requests termination, which also requires an acknowledg-
ment. Therefore, four TCP segments are involved. Answers a, b, c, e, and f are
incorrect, because four is the correct number of segments required to close a TCP
session.

Question 39

The correct answer is a. To copy files from the running configuration (or RAM)
to the NVRAM (or startup) configuration, you use the copy running-config
startup-config command. Answers b and c are incorrect, because they are invalid
IOS commands. Answer d is incorrect, because the copy running-config tftp
command copies the configuration to a TFTP server.

Question 40

The correct answer is d. The last line of the display indicates that the ring speed
is 16MB:

Ring speed: 16 Mbps

Answers a, b, c, and e are incorrect, because 16Mbps is the correct answer.

Question 41

The correct answer is d. The show interface command displays vital statistics
about the state of a LAN or WAN interface. The described state—serial line is
down, line protocol is up—is not a possible condition. The four possible states are:

➤ serial 0 line is down, line protocol is down—No cable or modem is connected.

➤ serial 0 line is up, line protocol is up—The WAN service is working fine and

keepalives from the remote site are being sent and received.

➤ serial 0 line is up, line protocol is down—A cable is plugged into the router,

but no keepalives are being received from the remote router.

➤ serial 0 is administratively down, line protocol is down—The interface has

not been enabled by the administrator.

Answer a is incorrect, because, when keepalives are received, the line protocol is
typically up or active. Answer b is incorrect, because, if the remote modem is
down, the condition would be serial 0 line is up, line protocol is down. Answer c

○

Answer Key

is incorrect, because a looped connection is indicated as serial 0 line is up, line
protocol is up (looped). Answer e is incorrect, because when a new router ships,
all LAN and WAN interfaces are administratively shut down.

Question 42

The correct answer is c. IPXWAN stands for IPX wide area network. The
IPXWAN protocol negotiates end-to-end options for new links before IPX traf-
fic can traverse the WAN link. Answer a is incorrect, because servers and printers
(for instance) advertise their services using the Service Advertisement Protocol
(SAP). Answer b is incorrect, because IPXWAN does not advertise networks.
Answer d is incorrect, because IPXWAN is part of the IPX model and can help
obtain IPX connectivity between various router vendors.

Question 43

The correct answer is a. There are no theoretical collisions possible in a Token
Ring network. The only time you might see them is when a possible software
error has occurred on a Cisco router. Collisions occur in an Ethernet environ-
ment. Therefore, answers b, c and d are all incorrect.

Question 44

The correct answer is c. Supernetting is simply the aggregation of IP network
addressing into a single classless address. In this question, you are given the Class C
network 200.200.8-11.0/24. If you examine the third octet in binary you see that:

➤ 8 is 00001000

➤ 9 is 00001001

➤ 10 is 00001010

➤ 11 is 00001011

Only the last three bits change or the first five bits are always the same. Because
this is a Class C address, the first five bits are set to 11111XXX. The mask used to
summarize these addresses is 255.255.252.0. Therefore, answers a, b, and d are
incorrect.

Question 45

The correct answer is b. By default, all debug information goes to the console
port on a Cisco router only. To view debug messages from a VTY session, you
must issue the terminal monitor command. Answer a is incorrect, because a Cisco

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Chapter 12

router will place all debug information in the highest CPU queue. Answer c is
incorrect, because you do not need to reboot a router to view debug information.
Answer d is incorrect, because there is an exhaustive debug command set. An-
swer e is incorrect, because the auxiliary port is used for remote management via
a modem, for example. Answer f is incorrect, because you can view debug infor-
mation via a console or VTY session.

Question 46

The correct answer is d. In a bridged environment, the layer 2 MAC header
information that contains the source and destination MAC address does not
change. The transparent bridge simply passes frames from one port to another.
Therefore, when PC1 sends a frame to PC2, the destination MAC address will
be that of PC2. The MAC address of PC2 is given in the question as 00-00-0b-
de-ad-bd. Answers a, b, and c are incorrect, because they present incorrect MAC
addresses. Answer e is incorrect, because the correct answer is provided.

Question 47

The correct answer is c. In a bridged environment, the layer 2 MAC header
information that contains the source and destination MAC address does not
change. The transparent bridge simply passes frames from one port to another.
Therefore, when PC1 sends a frame to PC2, the MAC address that is placed in
the source address field will be its own address, defined as 00-00-0b-ba-da-aa.
The MAC address of PC1 is given in the question as 00-00-0b-ba-da-aa. An-
swers a, b, and d are incorrect, because they present incorrect source MAC ad-
dresses. Answer e is incorrect, because the correct answer is provided.

Question 48

The correct answer is b. When IP routing is enabled on a device, the local PC
named PC2 in Figure 11.4 will use the local gateway as its next hop, because the
remote device PC1 is on another IP network. The router will strip the layer 2
MAC header and insert its own header with the source address 00-00-0c-ab-cd-
ef and destination address 00-00-0c-ab-da-aa (PC1 MAC address). When the
frame arrives on port 1 (the LAN segment where PC1 is located), the router will
strip the header and place port 1 as the source address and the PC1 MAC ad-
dress as the destination address. Therefore, when PC1 receives the frame, the
layer 2 MAC header will specify the source address as 00-00-0c-ab-cd-ef and the
destination address as 00-00-0b-ba-da-aa. Layer 3 IP addressing is not altered.
Answers a, c, and d are incorrect, because they present incorrect source addresses.
Answer e is incorrect, because the correct answer is provided.

○

Answer Key

Question 49

The correct answer is b. When IP routing is enabled on a device, the local PC
named PC2 in Figure 11.4 will use the local gateway as its next hop, because the
remote device PC1 is on another IP network. Therefore, when PC2 sends a frame
destined for PC2, the destination layer 2 address will be the default gateways
MAC Address or 00-00-0c-ab-cd-fe. The routing device, in this case, Device B,
will strip the layer 2 MAC header and insert its own header with the source
address 00-00-0c-ab-cd-fe and destination address 00-00-0c-ab-cd-ef. When
the frame arrives on port 1 (the LAN segment where PC1 is located), the router,
in this case Device A, will strip the header and place port 1 as the source address
and the PC1 MAC address as the destination address. Therefore, when PC1
receives the frame, the layer 2 MAC header will specify the source address as 00-
00-0c-ab-cd-ef and the destination address as 00-00-0b-ba-da-aa. Layer 3 IP
addressing is not altered. Answers a, c, and d are incorrect, because they present
incorrect destination addresses. Answer e is incorrect, because there is enough
layer 2 information to deduce the correct answer.

Question 50

The correct answers are a and d. To set a designated router in an OSPF network,
you can set the priority or use the router with the highest loopback address. An-
swer b is incorrect, because setting the priority to 0 makes the router ineligible to
become the DR. Answer c is incorrect, because, in an OSPF broadcast environ-
ment, the election of the DR does not depend on the router that boots first.
Answer e is incorrect, because answers a and d satisfy the question.

Question 51

The correct answers are a and b. Token Ring 802.5 supports two broadcast desti-
nation addresses, namely all Fs or C0-00-FF-FF-FF-FF. Answer c is incorrect,
because 255.255.255.255 is not a layer 2 broadcast address but a layer 3 IP broad-
cast address. Answer d is incorrect, because 00-00-00-00-00-00 is not a valid
layer 2 address.

Question 52

The correct answer is c. The display is rather corrupted, but you can assume the
following line is correct:

MTU 1500 bytes, BW 100000 Kbit, DLY 100 usec,

The bandwidth statement indicates that the interface is running at 100,000Kbps
or 100Mbps. Answers a, b, and d are incorrect; 10Mbps, 20Mbps, and 1,000Mbps

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Chapter 12

are incorrect, because the code display indicates that a 100Mbps Ethernet net-
work is in use.

Question 53

The correct answer is c. The Cisco 7200 router has six half slots in total. The
ports on each card are indicated by type slot/port-adapter/port. The type slot is
Ethernet (E), and the four-port Ethernet card is in slot 0. Remember, Cisco
starts counting from 0, so the first Ethernet port is designated as E0/0, port 2 as
E0/1, port 3 as E0/2, and port 4 as E0/3. Therefore, the second-to-last port (port
3, E0/2) is indicated by the show interface Ethernet0/2 IOS command. Answers
a and b are incorrect, because the incorrect port is specified in the commands.
Answer d is incorrect, because this commands identifies the last port on the card.
Answer e is incorrect, because there is no Ethernet port 0/4—Cisco doesn’t offer
a five-port Ethernet card for a Cisco 7200 series router.

Question 54

The correct answer is c. To start OSPF on a Cisco router, you must issue the
router ospf <process id> IOS command. The first part of the question requires the
router to run OSPF with a process ID of 1, router ospf 1. To configure certain
networks in an area, OSPF uses inverse masks. To place the networks ranging
from 144.108.8.0 through 141.108.15.0 in area 2000, you would use the follow-
ing IOS command:

router ospf 1

network 144.108.8.0 0.0.7.255 area 2000

This command will place all networks into area 2000 as required by the question.
Answer a is incorrect, because the 0.0.255.255 mask places all networks in the
range from 144.108.0.0 through 141.108.255.255 in area 2000. Answer b is in-
correct, because the process ID should be 1, not 2000. Answer d is incorrect,
because OSPF has not been started with the router ospf 1 command.

Question 55

The correct answers are b, c, d, and f. VLSM (variable-length subnet mask) al-
lows IP networks to be advertised with a different mask to save on address space.
IP RIP version 2, OSPF, BGP, and EIGRP support VLSM. Answer a is incor-
rect, because RIP version 1 does not support VLSM. Answer e is incorrect, be-
cause IGRP does not support VLSM. Both RIP I and IGRP only support
fixed-length masks, which means that all IP networks in the administrative do-
main must have the same subnet mask.

○

Answer Key

Question 56

The correct answer is e. The IP address of the Ethernet interface is 141.108.100.1/
24 with a secondary IP address of 10.1.1.1/24. The OSPF configuration places
all networks in the range from 141.108.1.0 through 141.108.1.255 in area 2000.
Therefore, the Ethernet interface will not be advertised by OSPF, because
141.108.100.1 does not fall in the specified range. Answers a, b, c, and d are
incorrect, because the Ethernet interface will not be advertised.

Question 57

The correct answer is b. The router in Listing 11.1 is running OSPF and BGP.
Under the BGP router configuration the statement network 131.108.0.0 is ap-
plied. BGP does not use areas like OSPF does, therefore the network 131.108.0.0
is not configured for OSPF areas. This means that answers a, c, and d are incorrect.

Question 58

The correct answer is a. The following command configures router R1 with a
static DNS:

ip host r1 131.108.3.1

The preceding command will cause the router from the Exec mode to translate
the name from R1 to the IP address 131.108.3.1. The serial interface S0 is con-
figured with a 30-bit subnet mask of 131.108.1.2. You can assume that the re-
mote router has been assigned the address 131.108.1.1, because a 30-bit subnet
mask only supports two devices. Answer b is incorrect; an error will not occur,
because the name R1 has been configured to translate to the IP address
131.108.3.1. Answer c is incorrect, because R2’s host address is 141.108.10.1,
which is the local router’s Ethernet address. Answer d is incorrect, because the
configuration in Listing 11.1 is a valid configuration.

Question 59

The correct answer is c. The router displayed in Listing 11.1 has one Ethernet,
two serial, and one BRI interface—this describes a Cisco 2503 router. Answer a
is incorrect, because enough information is provided to determine the correct
answer. Answer b is incorrect, because a Cisco 2051 router does not exist in the
Cisco hardware catalog. Answer d is incorrect, because a Cisco 2502 router has
one Token Ring interface and only two high-speed serial ports.

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Chapter 12

Question 60

The correct answer is e. OSPF will not advertise a secondary IP address unless
the primary address is configured for OSPF. In Listing 11.1, the router ospf
configuration is:

router ospf 1

network 141.108.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 2000

network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 2000

Because the primary address is 141.108.100.1/24 and is not contained in OSPF
(the range from 141.108.1.0 through 141.108.1.255 only), the Cisco IOS will
not advertise the secondary IP address 10.1.1.1/24, even though the second con-
figuration line—network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 2000—encompasses the
range from 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255. Answers a, b, c, and d are incorrect,
because OSPF will not advertise a secondary IP address in this example.

Question 61

The correct answer is b. The VTY configuration contains the line no login. This
means that a remote user will not be required to supply a password to enter Exec
mode. Answer a is incorrect, because the administrator must enter boot mode to
display the prompt R2(boot)>. Answer c is incorrect, because the enable pass-
word must be entered to start privilege mode, which is displayed by the #, in this
case as R2#. Answer d is incorrect, because this is not a valid mode on a Cisco
router (R2.).

Question 62

The correct answers are a, b, and c. LMI is an enhancement to frame relay to
allow better management of frame relay networks. Other functions performed by
LMI are global, addressing, virtual circuit status messages, and multicasting. Cisco
support three standards for LMI—ANSI, Q933a, and Cisco. Answer d is incor-
rect, because Q921 is used in ISDN networks—Q921 is used for signaling, not
LMI.

Question 63

The correct answer is f. EIGRP is not a WAN service—it’s a routing protocol
supported on Cisco routers. EIGRP can handle IP, IPX, and AppleTalk routing.
Answers a, b, c, d, and e are incorrect, because Cisco routers support many WAN
services, including ISDN, frame relay, PPP, HDLC, and SDLC.

○

Answer Key

Question 64

The correct answers are c and d. To view the configuration in RAM, the IOS com-
mand is show running-config. In earlier releases of IOS, the command was write
terminal. Answer a is incorrect, because it will display the configuration stored in
NVRAM or the startup configuration. Answer b is incorrect, because write config
is an invalid IOS command. Answer e, is not a valid IOS command also.

Question 65

The correct answer is e. The syntax for a static router is:

ip route <destination> <mask> <next hop>

Answer a is incorrect, because the show ip route command displays the IP rout-
ing table. Answer b is incorrect, because the command contains the wrong next
hop address. Answer c is incorrect, because the next hop address cannot be the
subnet address. Answer d is incorrect, because it is an invalid IOS command.

Question 66

The correct answers are a, b, and d. TCP, FTP, and Logical Link Control type 2
are connection-orientated protocols, so they guarantee data delivery. Answers c
and e are incorrect, because frame relay and LLC type 1 are connectionless and
do not guarantee delivery.

Question 67

The correct answer is e. Route maps can be used for a number of purposes, in-
cluding setting the next hop, setting the IP precedence, administering policy rout-
ing, and setting outbound interfaces. Answers a, b, c, and d are incorrect, because,
while each option specifies a route map, answer e provides the most comprehen-
sive answer. Answer f is incorrect, because a router map can be used as described
in answers a, b, c, and d.

Question 68

The correct answer is c. A layer 2 switch configured with a number of VLANs
will not send a broadcast from one VLAN to another because they are different
broadcast domains. This is the main purpose of a layer 2 switch—to segregate
Ethernet or Token Ring networks, for instance. Answer a is incorrect, because a
switch will not broadcast all frames to all VLANs. Answer b is incorrect, because
a switch will not send out a broadcast to the source port, but all ports in the same
VLAN. Answer d is incorrect, because a switch will not send a broadcast regard-

○

Chapter 12

less of VLAN membership. The only time this is not the case is when 802.1q
encapsulation is configured, in which case broadcasts are sent across the trunks
tagged with VLAN information.

Question 69

The correct answer is a. Every VLAN in any layer 2-switched environment will
have one root bridge per VLAN. Because there are 10 VLANs, there will be 10
root bridges—one per VLAN (10x1=10). Each VLAN is treated like a separate
bridge environment. Answers b, c, and d are incorrect, because the correct answer
to the question is 100 root bridges.

Question 70

The correct answers are a, c, and e. The register 0x2142 configuration is a com-
mon register you should be aware of. By examining the bits shown in Chapter 11,
you can deduce that the router will ignore the startup configuration in NVRAM
(bit 6 is set to 1) and the baud rate (bits 11/12) is set to 9600. This register will
also cause the router to boot from flash (bits 0 through 3). Answer b is incorrect,
because the router will only boot from ROM if the first three bits are set to 000.
Answer d is incorrect, because the register 0x2142 instructs the router to ignore
the configuration in NVRAM.

Question 71

The correct answer is d. The keepalive command sets the interval at which an
Ethernet interface will check the status of the link. Setting keepalive to 0 means
a Cisco router will assume the interface is always active and the protocol is up.
Answer a is incorrect, because the router will only reload with a power reset or
with the reload command. Answer b is incorrect, because the IOS will not shut
down an interface unless instructed with the shutdown command in interface
mode. Answer c is incorrect; the router will activate the interface but it will not
be able to communicate to any devices, because, physically, the interface is not
connected to any other LAN segment.

Question 72

The correct answer is d. Spanning tree bridges have the following four valid
states when bridging:

➤ Listening—The bridge listens for frames. No frames are forwarded when the

bridge is listening.

○

Answer Key

➤ Learning—The bridge starts to build a MAC address forwarding table. Cisco’s

term for this MAC address forwarding table is called the content addressable
memory (CAM) table. No frames are forwarded at this stage.

➤ Forwarding—The bridge forwards frames.

➤ Blocking—The bridge blocks frames to stop a bridging loop from occurring.

Answer a is incorrect, because ending is not a valid spanning tree state. Answer b
is incorrect, because resetting and flooding are not valid spanning tree states. An-
swer c is incorrect, because broadcasting in not a valid spanning tree state.

Question 73

The correct answer is c. Cisco routers have a predefined administrative distance
(AD) that defines the trustworthiness of routing protocols. The AD value ranges
from 0 through 255. The lower the AD, the more trusted the network routing
information. Table 12.1 provides the default AD values assigned by Cisco IOS.

EIGRP (90) will be selected over RIP (120), IGRP (100), and OSPF (110),
because EIGRP’s administrative distance is the lowest among all answers. An-
swers a, b, and d are incorrect, because RIP, IGRP, and OSPF have higher AD
values than EIGRP.

Table 12.1

Default distances for route sources.

Route Source Default

Distance

Connected interface

Static route

EIGRP summary route

External BGP

EIGRP

IGRP

100

OSPF

110

IS-IS

115

RIP

120

EGP

140

Internal BGP

200

Unknown

255

○

Chapter 12

Question 74

The correct answer is d. The passive-interface command is used under the IP
routing protocols configuration. When applied this command will prevent a Cisco
router from sending updates on the outbound interface. Answer a is incorrect,
because the command passive-interface is a valid IOS command. Answer b is
incorrect, because a Cisco router will add networks that are received on an in-
bound interface. Answer c is incorrect, because only outbound updates will be
prevented from being sent incoming routing updates are processed and inserted
into the IP routing table accordingly.

Question 75

The correct answer is c. Spanning tree is used to maintain loop-free paths be-
tween LANs. Answer a is incorrect, because routing updates are performed at
layer 3 of the OSI model. Answer b is incorrect, because spanning tree is not used
to prevent routing loops—it’s used to prevent bridging loops. Answer d is incor-
rect, because CDP is a data-link propriety protocol used by Cisco devices. CDP
is used to discover other Cisco devices in a network.

Question 76

The correct answer is d. A 30-bit mask is represented in decimal as
255.255.255.252 as is typically used on Serial links between Cisco routers. This
leaves 2 bits available for host addressing. Let’s do the math, a simple calculation
2

=4-2=2. Answers a, b, and c are incorrect, because the maximum number of

hosts that can be assigned to a 30-bit network is 2.

Question 77

The correct answer is d. OSPF is a link-state protocol, and RIP is a distance-
vector protocol. Link-state protocols converge faster than distance-vector proto-
cols. Answer a is incorrect, because there are major differences between link-state
and distance-vector protocols, such as speed, VLSM, and CPU requirements.
Answer b is incorrect, because RIP is a distance-vector protocol, not a link-state
protocol. Answer c is incorrect, because RIP converges considerably slower than OSPF.

Question 78

The correct answer is c. The IOS command to display the hardware components
on a Cisco router is show hardware or shorthand show hard or show ha. Answers
a, b, and d are incorrect, because show components, display hardware, and list
hardware are invalid IOS commands.

○

Answer Key

Question 79

The correct answer is a. The IOS command to copy the NVRAM configuration
(startup-config) to the RAM (running-config) is copy startup-config running-
config. Answers b, c, and d are incorrect, because they are invalid IOS commands.

Question 80

The correct answer is e. By default, EIGRP will use up to 50 percent of the
bandwidth defined by the interface bandwidth command. The interface com-
mand ip eigrp-bandwidth-percent <0-100%> can be used to change this value.
Answers a, b, c, and d are incorrect, because 50 percent is the correct answer.

Question 81

The correct answers are a, b c, d, f, h, and j. The seven layers of the OSI model are,
starting with layer 1, Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presen-
tation, and Application. Answers e, g, i, and k are incorrect, because Import,
Controller, Communication, and Internetworking are not among of the seven
layers of the OSI model. In this type of question, you must be select all seven
layers; otherwise, you will not earn a point for a correct answer.

Question 82

The correct answer is b. Performing the AND operation on the host address and
subnet mask will deduce the subnet address. Let’s display the network
131.108.1.10/27 in binary,

131.108.1.10 255.255.255.224 (/27)

11111111.11111111.11111111.00001010

11111111.11111111.11111111.11100000

AND (1 and 1 is 1 only)

11111111.11111111.11111111.00000000

Converting this to decimal leaves the subnet 131.108.1.0. Hence, answer b is the
only correct option. Answer a is incorrect, because 131.108.1.1 is a valid host
address on the subnet 131.108.1.0. Answer c is incorrect, because the address
131.108.1.31 is the directed broadcast address. Answers d is incorrect, because
131.108.1.1 is also a valid host address.

Question 83

The correct answers are b and d. IPX is a layer 3 protocol, and SPX is a layer 4
protocol, which is part of the Novell protocol suite. Answer a is incorrect, because
IPX is not part of layer 2 of the IPX model. Answer c is incorrect, because SPX is

○

Chapter 12

not part of layer 5 of the IPX model. Answer e is incorrect, because only IPX is
part of layer 3 of the IPX model.

Question 84

The correct answer is a. A default IP route is used to enable routers in a domain
a path to network not already inserted in their routing table. A default route is
typically used to reduce IP routing table size. Answer b is incorrect, because de-
fault routes can be used in RIP, IGRP, and OSPF domain along with BGP au-
tonomous systems. Answer c is incorrect, because the time to live field in the IP
frame stops packets from routing forever. Answer d is incorrect, because once
more default routes are not used to stop routing loops.

Question 85

The correct answers are b, d, and e. TCP is a connection-orientated protocol and
is used by BGP (TCP port 179), FTP (ports 20 and 21), and Telnet (port 23).
Answer a is incorrect, because OSPF uses IP protocol 89. Answer c is incorrect,
because TFTP uses UDP port 69, which is a connectionless protocol.

Question 86

The correct answer is d. The configuration register is a 16-bit number that de-
fines how a router will operate on a power cycle. When the register is set to
0x2101, the router is instructed to disable the break, set the console baud rate to
9600, and boot from rom. The registers when set to 0x2101 will not boot IOS
from flash, therefore answer d satisfies the question. Answers a, b, and c are there-
fore incorrect.

Question 87

The correct answer is a. A loopback interface is a software interface commonly
used in OSPF and BGP networks. Answers b, c, d, and e are incorrect, because
they are examples of hardware interfaces available on a Cisco router and are con-
nected to some form of equipment, like a modem or switch.

Question 88

The correct answer is a. The question requires the CCIE candidate to identify a
characteristic of Fast Ethernet channel that is false. Answer a is not a character-
istic of Fast Ether Channel, because Fast Ether refers to Fast Ethernet, which
runs at 100Mbps. Answers b, c, d and e are incorrect as described in the follow-
ing: Fast Ether Channel allows you to bundle Fast Ethernet ports (100Mbps)

○

Answer Key

into one logical link to provide a high bandwidth link up to 1600Mbps with full
duplex capabilities. Fast Ether Channel is fault tolerant and works around a single
or more port failure. Fast Ether supports up to 8 ports bundled together and of
course support high bandwidth.

Question 89

The correct answer is e. The left-hand side of the routing table indicates a D for
EIGRP. The first number in the brackets after the network is the assigned ad-
ministrative distance, which 90 in this example. The second number (2297856)
is the EIGRP metric, as you can see:

D 141.108.0.0/16 [90/2297856] via 131.108.3.2, 00:00:04, Serial0

Answer a is incorrect, because RIP is not used to discover the remote network
141.108.0.0. Answer b is incorrect, because IGRP is not used to discover the
remote network 141.108.0.0. Answer c is incorrect, because the administrative
distance is not 2297856—this number represents the EIGRP metric. Answer d
is incorrect, because 16 is not the administrative distance—16 represents the
subnetted bits used in the network 141.108.0.0.

Question 90

The correct answer is d. In an SRB domain, intelligent end devices can handle
duplicate paths to a single destination. This is accomplished with the use of the
RIF. Typically, the RIF with the lowest hop count is chosen. Answer a is incor-
rect, because source route bridge environments can make intelligent decisions
when more than one path exists. Answer b is incorrect, because SRB devices do
not require spanning tree to discover remote devices. Answer c is incorrect, be-
cause, if a root bridge resets, another bridge will assume the root bridge’s func-
tion, and SRB devices are intelligent enough to discover new paths when a primary
path fails.

Question 91

The correct answer is c. There is no need to have area 0 if you have only one area
in your network. You can use any number as the area ID, which can be repre-
sented as a numeral or in IP address formats. Examples include area 2000 or area
141.108.0.0. If you have more than one area, you must have a designated back-
bone area 0 or 0.0.0.0. Answer a is incorrect, because virtual links are used to help
you in a transition phase in a large OSPF network. Virtual links are not used in
single-area OSPF networks. Answer b is incorrect, because OSPF can reside in a
single area as long as all routers reside in the area. Answer d is incorrect, because
OSPF is based on areas and partitioning.

○

Chapter 12

Question 92

The correct answer is a. In any broadcast medium like Ethernet, OSPF desig-
nates one router as the designated router (DR) and another router as the backup
designated router. This setup reduces link-state flooding and adjacencies. An-
swers b, c, d, and e are incorrect, because only one DR and one BDR exists on any
broadcast network.

Question 93

The correct answer is a. The router flash can be partitioned with the <name>
<number of partition> <size of each partition> global command partition. This
command is not visible in the question, but you can deduce that the command
boot system flash 2:xx-aj-mz.111-9.bin effectively tells the router to load the file
named xx-aj-mz.111-9.bin from the second partition (2). If the file is not present,
the file xx-j-mz.110-7.4 will be loaded from partition (1). If both files, are not
present, the boot system flash command instructs the router to load any image
available on flash. Answer b is incorrect, because the file named xx-j-mz.110-7.4
will only be loaded when the first image is not present. Answer c is incorrect,
because there is no image named flash. Answer d is incorrect, because the ques-
tion provides enough data to conclude that answer a is correct.

Question 94

The correct answers are b and c. NLSP (NetWare Link Services Protocol) is a
link state routing protocol used to route IPX. OSPF and IS-IS are link state
protocols. Answers a and d are incorrect, because, RIP and RIP II are distance
vector protocols.

Question 95

The correct answers are a, c, and d. The autonomous system number is defined by
the statement router eigrp 100. The passive-interface Ethernert0 command stops
updates from being sent out of Ethernet 0, although EIGRP updates will be
received from Ethernet 0. Automatic summarization in EIGRP must be turned
off manually with the no auto-summary command. Because the no auto-sum-
mary command is not displayed, you can assume that the configuration is sum-
marizing at the network boundaries. Answer b is incorrect, because when IP
EIGRP is enabled on the Ethernet interface updates will be handled and pro-
cessed accordingly not suppressed. Outgoing updates are suppressed from this
router only.

○

Answer Key

Question 96

The correct answers are a, c, and d. Looking at Figure 11.5, you can see that only
EIGRP is in use across the serial link. That means that IP EIGRP (IPX EIGRP
and AppleTalk EIGRP) is running. Further, IPX RIP (IPX native routing pro-
tocol) and RTMP (AppleTalk native protocol) are not running across the link.
Another important point to note is that edge devices do not understand Cisco’s
proprietary routing protocol for IPX and AppleTalk. As a result, answer b is
incorrect, because Cisco routers understand AppleTalk EIGRP only. Answer a is
correct because native AppleTalk devices use RTMP and hence must be enabled
were native AppleTalk devices reside. Also, the question states that only AppleTalk
EIGRP is in use, which means that the administrator has to disable RTMP with
the command no appletalk protocol rtmp. Answer e is incorrect, because answer
b is incorrect.

Question 97

The correct answers are b and d. In Figure 11.5, you can see that only EIGRP is
in use across the serial link. EIGRP supports IP, IPX, and AppleTalk. That means
that IP EIGRP (IPX EIGRP and AppleTalk EIGRP) is running. It also means
that IPX RIP and RTMP (AppleTalk native protocol) is not running across the
link. Answer a is incorrect, because you are told in the question that EIGRP is
the only protocol running across the WAN. Another important point to note is
that edge devices, such as client PCs, do not understand Cisco proprietary rout-
ing protocol for IPX and AppleTalk. This results in answer c being incorrect,
because only Cisco routers understand IPX EIGRP (native IPX devices do not
understand IPX EIGRP).

Question 98

The correct answer is a. Automatic redistribution occurs between IGRP and
EIGRP when the same autonomous system is used within a Cisco router. An-
swer b is incorrect, because the metric is multiplied by 256 when the network is
inserted in EIGRP. Answer c is incorrect, because the composite metric is not
the same—it’s 256 times the metric used by IGRP. Answer d is incorrect, because
manual redistribution is only required if the AS is different.

Question 99

The correct answer is b. This is a trick question. In Figure 11.6, notice that the
PC1 IP address is 172.108.1.100/24 and the IP address on the router’s Ethernet
interface is also 172.108.1.100/24. Therefore, you have a duplicate IP address
problem. This will result in PC1 not being able to communicate consistently

○

Chapter 12

with PC2 or the router named Minto. Answers a, c, and d are incorrect, because
PC2 will send a response to a network device with an IP address 172.108.1.100,
which is also the router.

Question 100

The correct answer is d. A layer 2 switch is designed to group ports together and
will only forward broadcast frames to ports belonging to the same logical group
or VLAN. Answer a is incorrect, because a layer 2 switch will only forward broad-
cast frames to ports in the same VLAN not all VLANs. Answer b is incorrect,
because the switch will process the frame. A layer 2 switch will not throw away
broadcast frames. Answer c is incorrect, because a layer 2 device, such as a switch,
will not perform routing functions such as stripping the header.

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